AIBE 20 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers (Solved)

Practice the AIBE 20 (2025)  Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.

Q1. If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?
(A) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning.
(B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty.
(C) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order.
(D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person.
Answer: (C)

Q2. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?
(A) Seven
(B) Ten
(C) Fourteen
(D) Twenty-one
Answer: (C)

Q3. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?
(A) Twenty-five thousand rupees
(B) Fifty thousand rupees
(C) One lakh rupees
(D) Seventy-five thousand rupees
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption.

Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)

Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years.

Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender.

In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
(B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
(D) Both the Statements are true.
Answer: (C)

Q6. If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Ten years
(D) Three years
Answer: (A)

Q7. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 125
(C) Section 302
(D) Section 482
Answer: (A)

Q8. Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 60
Answer: (B)

Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of Rs. 4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?
(A) One year
(B) Two months
(C) Four months
(D) Six months
Answer: (B)

Q10. According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years
Answer: (C)

Q11. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?
(A) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly.
(B) Only when they form part of a dying declaration.
(C) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact.
(D) When they are part of an admission made in writing.
Answer: (C)

Q12. What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) The evidence must have been recorded in the presence of a jury.
(B) The proceedings were between the same parties or their representatives in interest.
(C) The evidence must have been published in a government gazette.
(D) The evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.
Answer: (B)

Q13. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
(A) Draft agreements between individuals.
(B) Personal diaries of government officials.
(C) Internal notes of a private company.
(D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers.
Answer: (D)

Q14. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended.
(B) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit.
(C) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists.
(D) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act.
Answer: (C)

Q15. As per Section 30 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years' imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine?
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 6 months
(D) 3 months
Answer: (C)

Q16. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?
(A) Article 30
(B) Article 41
(C) Article 47
(D) Article 45
Answer: (D)

Q17. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal?
(A) Only the High Court exercising Writ jurisdiction.
(B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal.
(C) The District Registrar of Property Records.
(D) The Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction.
Answer: (B)

Q18. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee?
(A) Three Judges of the High Court.
(B) Two Judges of the High Court.
(C) Four Judges of the High Court.
(D) Five Judges of the High Court.
Answer: (A)

Q19. According to the Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63?
(A) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees.
(B) Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees.
(C) Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to three lakh rupees.
(D) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees.
Answer: (A)

Q20. As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?
(A) Article 28(1)
(B) Article 29(1)
(C) Article 30(2)
(D) Article 32
Answer: (B)

Q21. Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding Rs. 5,000?
(A) Six weeks
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Six months
Answer: (C)

Q22. Which of the following situation falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Decree for Rs. 1,800, detention up to three months.
(B) Decree for Rs. 3,500, detention up to six weeks.
(C) Decree for Rs. 6,200, detention up to six months.
(D) Decree for Rs. 10,000, detention up to one year.
Answer: (B)

Q23. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement?
(A) Thirty days
(B) Fifteen days
(C) Sixty days
(D) Ninety days
Answer: (A)

Q24. How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed?
(A) Six years after final determination of the cause.
(B) Three years after the institution of the suit.
(C) Two years after final determination of the cause.
(D) Five years from the date of decree.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q25. According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
(A) The tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely.
(B) The tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings.
(C) The tribunal assumes the claim is admitted.
(D) The tribunal terminates the proceedings.
Answer: (D)

Q26. If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Six months
(D) Three months
Answer: (D)

Q27. What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
Answer: (B)

Q28. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 226
(D) Article 14
Answer: (B)

Q29. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector?
(A) Not less than 7 days
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) Not less than 15 days
(D) Not less than 30 days
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q30. Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?
(A) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code.
(B) Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(C) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(D) Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Answer: (C)

Q31. According to Section 44AA (2) (i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds:
(A) Rs. 1,20,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 5,00,000
(D) Rs. 10,00,000
Answer: (A)

Q32. Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period?
(A) When the applicant has filed a request for early examination.
(B) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.
(C) When the patent has already been granted by the Controller.
(D) When the applicant has requested for an extension of time.
Answer: (B)

Q33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette.

Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)

Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person.

Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness.

In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
(B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
(D) Both the Statements are true.
Answer: (D)

Q35. Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
(A) House Rent Allowance granted by private companies.
(B) Entertainment Allowance granted to government employees.
(C) Transport Allowance provided to all salaried persons.
(D) Leave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel.
Answer: (B)

Q36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction.

Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which the negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received.

In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
(B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
(D) Both the Statements are true.
Answer: (D)

Q37. In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement: Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it.

Conclusions:
I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act.
II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Answer: (A)

Q38. Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 50
Answer: (C)

Q39. After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case?
(A) Loss due to falling land prices in the market.
(B) Loss due to cancellation of tenant agreements.
(C) Loss of employment in nearby areas.
(D) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q40. According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?
(A) Rs. 2,000
(B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 5,000
(D) Rs. 3,000
Answer: (D)

Q41. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?
(A) When the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance.
(B) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor.
(C) When it is delivered to the office of the proposer party.
(D) When the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records.
Answer: (B)

Q42. Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders how many days' notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?
(A) Five days' notice
(B) Fifteen days' notice
(C) Forty-five days' notice
(D) Sixty days' notice
Answer: (B)

Q43. According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143?
(A) Six months' imprisonment
(B) Two years' imprisonment
(C) One year's imprisonment
(D) Three years' imprisonment
Answer: (C)

Q44. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement:
As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 every company must, within thirty days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties.

Conclusions:
I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.
II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for the penalty.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (C)

Q45. Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest.

Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard.

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (B)

Q46. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement:
According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits Rs. 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.

Conclusions:
I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (A)

Q47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape.

Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)

Q48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if a proclaimed person appears in the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.

Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)

Q49. Read the given Statements and choose the correct option.

A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements:

Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, in exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications.

Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.

(A) Only Statement 1 is true
(B) Only Statement 2 is true
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
Answer: (A)

Q50. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.

Statement:
According to the Advocates Act, 1961 when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.

Conclusions:
I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons.

(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (C)