Practice the AIBE 10 (2017) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.

Q51. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to pay a certain sum of money is:
(A) Conditional
(B) Unconditional
(C) May be conditional or unconditional depending upon the circumstances
(D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q52. To make the criminal harmless by supplying him those things which he lacks and to cure him of those drawbacks which made him to commit crime is known as:
(A) Expiatory or penance theory of punishment
(B) Deterrent theory or preventive theory of punishment
(C) Reformative or rehabilitative or corrective theory of punishment
(D) Retributive theory of punishment
Answer: D

Q53. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after dissolution of marriage, he/she has been born within:
(A) 180 days
(B) 270 days
(C) 280 days
(D) 300 days
Answer: C

Q54. The distinction between Section 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill J. in:
(A) Reg v. Guruchand Gope
(B) Reg v. Govinda
(C) Reg v. Hayward
(D) Govind v. Reg
Answer: B

Q55. Maintenance application under Section 18(2) of Hama is filed in:
(A) Matrimonial Court
(B) District Court
(C) High Court
(D) Any of the above
Answer: B

Q56. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India opined that "bail is the surety and jail is an exception".
(A) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
(B) Moti Ram v. State of M.P.
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu
Answer: B

Q57. Minimum number of members required to apply for Incorporation Certificate in a Public Ltd. Company is:
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 50
Answer: A

Q58. Which of the following heirs is not class 1 heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
(A) Son
(B) Widow
(C) Father
(D) Mother
Answer: C

Q59. The maxim-fudi alteram partem denotes:
(A) No one shall be judge of his own cause
(B) No one shall be condemned unheard
(C) Rights are better than duties
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q60. According to Republic Act No. 6770, which of these powers is not provided to office of Ombudsman:
(A) Prosecutory power
(B) Function to adopt, institute and implement preventive measures
(C) Public assistant functions
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q61. Which of the following Section deals with search warrant:
(A) 93
(B) 94
(C) 95
(D) 96
Answer: A

Q62. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a factory under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936:
(A) Accounts manager
(B) HR manager
(C) Floor manager
(D) Owner
Answer: D

Q63. A contract can be specifically enforced:
(A) Where compensation is adequate relief for the non-performance of the contract
(B) Where the contract by its nature is determinable
(C) Where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
(D) None of the above
Answer: D

Q64. Natural guardian of an adopted son under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 is:
(A) Original father
(B) In the absence (A), original mother
(C) Adoptive father
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q65. Which condition is not required to be satisfied by an invention to be patentable subject matter under Patent Act:
(A) Novelty
(B) Inventive steps
(C) Distinctiveness
(D) Usefulness
Answer: C

Q66. The concept of 'plea bargaining' is not applicable to the offence committed against:
(A) A woman
(B) A child
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q67. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, came into force on:
(A) 18th November, 1986
(B) 19th November, 1986
(C) 20th November, 1986
(D) 21st November, 1986
Answer: B

Q68. A decree can be transferred for execution to another court:
(A) If the judgment debtor actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, within the local limits of jurisdiction of such court
(B) If the judgment debtor has property sufficient to satisfy the decree within the limits of that court
(C) If the decree directs the sale or delivery of immovable property situated outside the local limits of jurisdiction of the court which passed it
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q69. Motor Vehicles Act, 1939 came into force in?
(A) 1939
(B) 1940
(C) 1941
(D) 1942
Answer: B

Q70. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if:
(A) He is a minor
(B) He is an opposite party in the suit
(C) He has not given consent in writing
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q71. Recently, in which case the Kerala High Court held that a University Grant Commission criterion which allowed certain relaxation in marks to reserved categories as violation of Article 16(1) of the Constitution:
(A) Nair Service Society v. UGC, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W)
(B) CBSE v. UGC, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W)
(C) UGC v. State of Kerala, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W)
(D) UGC v. Secretary of State, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016 (W)
Answer: A

Q72. Pal Narayan Swami v. Emperor is a leading case on:
(A) Dying Declaration
(B) Confession
(C) Accomplice
(D) Expert witness
Answer: A

Q73. Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax:
(A) Goods and Services Tax
(B) Excise duty and customs duty
(C) Income tax and gift tax
(D) All of the above
Answer: C

Q74. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council of India under Section 36 or 37 of the Advocates Act, may prefer an appeal to the:
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) State Government
(D) Central Government
Answer: B

Q75. The provisions relating to compoundable offence is provided under Section:
(A) 319
(B) 320
(C) 265(d)
(D) 321
Answer: B

Q76. There is either theft or extortion. It is:
(A) Robbery
(B) Dacoity
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Receiving stolen property
Answer: A

Q77. 'A' resides at Shimla, 'B' at Kolkata and 'C' at Delhi. A, B and C being together at Banaras. B and C make a joint promissory note, payable on demand and delivered to A. 'A' may sue B and C:
(A) At Banaras, where the cause of action arose
(B) At Kolkata where B resides
(C) At Delhi where C resides
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q78. In most EU member countries, which of the following is the most visible form of ADR?
(A) Mediation
(B) Arbitration
(C) Litigation
(D) Conciliation
Answer: B

Q79. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that 'misconduct envisages breach of discipline'.
(A) P.D. Gupta v. Ram Murti
(B) Noratanmal Chaurasia v. M.R. Murli
(C) P.J. Ratnam v. D. Kanikaram
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q80. Which one of the following is known as Consumer Disputes Redressal Agency?
(A) District Forum
(B) State Commission
(C) National Commission
(D) All the above
Answer: D

Q81. Which is the leading case on environment:
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(B) Union of India v. H.S. Dhillon
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Answer: A

Q82. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae:
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Answer: B

Q83. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the Law of Mitakshara has been incorporated:
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 6
Answer: D

Q84. The theoretical powers to amend the constitution, has been given to the Members of Parliament and State Legislatures by:
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 378
(D) No such powers
Answer: B

Q85. Where a magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding 100/-, against this order where an appeal shall lie:
(A) In the court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) In the court of Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: D

Q86. A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree at the hearing and upon the:
(A) Demand of the party
(B) Discretion of the court
(C) Merit of the suit
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q87. In relation to Relevancy of Character in civil cases, which of the following is not correct:
(A) It is not at all relevant
(B) It is relevant when it affects award of damage
(C) When character is itself an issue
(D) When it appears from the fact otherwise relevant
Answer: A

Q88. The provision relating to Abolition of Untouchability is given in:
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 15
Answer: C

Q89. Under which section of CPC, option for settlement of dispute is provided outside the court?
(A) 80(1)
(B) 89(2)
(C) 89(1)
(D) 80(2)
Answer: C

Q90. Who are the partners in a bill of exchange?
(A) Drawer and Drawee
(B) Payee
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q91. Income which accrue or arise outside India but are directly received into India are taxable in case of:
(A) Residents only
(B) Both ordinarily residents and non-resident
(C) Non-resident
(D) All the assessees
Answer: D

Q92. The chief elements necessary to constitute a crime are:
(A) A human being
(B) An evil intent
(C) Injury to another human being or society
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q93. Under which section of CrPC the Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed:
(A) 13
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25
Answer: D

Q94. In respect of family relations the law applicable in India is:
(A) Secular law in India
(B) Statutory law
(C) Religious law
(D) Personal law of the parties
Answer: D

Q95. When a bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the same?
(A) Bill approved
(B) Law
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedures
Answer: B

Q96. In the Government of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list?
(A) Marriage
(B) Divorce and Arbitration
(C) Criminal Law and Procedure
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q97. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team to serve as National Agency for incident response is constituted under section:
(A) 71 of IT Act
(B) 70 of IT Act
(C) 70(A) of IT Act
(D) 70(B) of IT Act
Answer: D

Q98. Which writ is issued by the court to quash the wrongful order of a lower court:
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo Warranto
(C) Prohibition
(D) Certiorari
Answer: D

Q99. The rule is that penal statutes must be construed:
(A) Liberally
(B) Strictly
(C) Golden rule
(D) Mischievous
Answer: B

Q100. A contract of indemnity under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, has been defined in Section:
(A) 124
(B) 123
(C) 125
(D) 126(a)
Answer: A