Practice the AIBE 9 (2016) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The conciliation proceedings:
(A) can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings.
(B) can be used as evidence only in Arbitral proceedings.
(C) can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator.
(D) cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings.
Answer: D
Q2. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office:
(A) Takes up cases suo moto
(B) Takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concerned
(C) Takes up cases for investigations referred to by Central Government
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q3. Directive Principles are:
(A) justifiable as fundamental rights
(B) justifiable but not as fundamental rights
(C) decorative portions of Indian Constitution
(D) not justifiable yet fundamental in the governance of the country
Answer: D
Q4. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha:
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Council of Ministers
Answer: A
Q5. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of Bill for such purpose in:
(A) Council of States
(B) House of People
(C) either in Council of States or House of People
(D) none of the above
Answer: C
Q6. Which of the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
(A) To carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of pollution and prevention, control or abatement of pollution
(B) To improve the quality of air
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) neither nor
Answer: B
Q7. The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by:
(A) Indian Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Indian Fisheries Act, 1897
(D) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Answer: C
Q8. Section 10 of CPC does not apply:
(A) when the previous suit is pending in the same court
(B) when the previous suit is pending in a foreign court
(C) when the previous suit is pending in any other court of India
(D) when the previous suit is pending in a court outside India established by the Central Government
Answer: B
Q9. Principle of Res Judicata is:
(A) Mandatory
(B) Directory
(C) Discretionary
(D) All the above
Answer: A
Q10. International law is a weak law because:
(A) It is not enforceable; as such, it is not a law but a positive morality
(B) There is absence of compulsory dispute settlement mechanisms and independent system of sanctions
(C) It only includes States as subjects
(D) There is no dependable sources available
Answer: B
Q11. Which of the following territories have been declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Territories:
- Moon
- High seas
- Deep sea bed
- Antarctica
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: B
Q12. Which of the following is not the objective of the United Nations:
(A) Maintenance of International peace and security
(B) Ensuring respect for treaty obligations
(C) Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world
(D) Promotion of better standards of life
Answer: C
Q13. The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013 was headed by:
(A) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(B) Justice Altamas Kabir
(C) Justice J.S. Verma
(D) Justice J.S. Anand
Answer: C
Q14. If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchange, it is:
(A) a valid instrument
(B) an ambiguous instrument
(C) a returnable instrument
(D) none of the above
Answer: B
Q15. How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility:
(A) The networth will be calculated as per Section 198 of Companies Act, 2013
(B) It shall be calculated as per Section 197 of the Companies Act, 2013
(C) It shall be calculated as per Section 197 and Section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013
(D) It shall be calculated as per Section 198 and Section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013
Answer: D
Q16. According to one of the theories of punishment evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the:
(A) Reformative Theory
(B) Deterrent Theory
(C) Preventive Theory
(D) Retribitive Theory
Answer: D
Q17. Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under Section 4(5) of the Companies Act, 2013:
(A) He can direct the Company to change it's name within a period of 6 months after passing an ordinary resolution
(B) Take action for striking off the name of the Company from the registrar of Companies
(C) Order winding up of the Company on his own accord
(D) All of these
Answer: B
Q18. Which of the following are included in the concept of "State" under Article 12:
(A) Railway Board and Electricity Board
(B) Judiciary
(C) University
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q19. The word procedure established by law in Article 21 means:
(A) that due process of law must be followed
(B) a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority
(C) The same thing as due process of law
(D) A law which is reasonable, just and fair
Answer: D
Q20. Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC:
(A) Can be taken at any stage of the proceedings
(B) should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid
(C) can be taken in appeal or revision for the first time
(D) either (A) or (C)
Answer: B
Q21. Objection as to the place of suing:
(A) can only be taken before the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity
(B) can also be taken before the Appellate Court for the first time
(C) can also be taken before the court of revision for the first time
(D) all of the above
Answer: A
Q22. On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be:
(A) Stayed
(B) Dismissed
(C) Rejected
(D) either (A), (B) or (C)
Answer: A
Q23. In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?
(A) CERT-in
(B) MCIIPC
(C) C-DAC
(D) Ministry of IT
Answer: A
Q24. The right to private defence is:
(A) available under all circumstances
(B) available when there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities
(C) available when there is no time to have recourse of public authorities
(D) All the above
Answer: C
Q25. Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) Termination due to ill-health
(B) Abandonment of job by an employee
(C) Termination on account of reaching the age of superannuation
(D) None of these
Answer: D
Q26. Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provisions of Section 14(3) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986:
(A) It may extend to one year
(B) It may extend to two years
(C) It may extend to six months
(D) It may extend to one month
Answer: D
Q27. Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the Society of the other is on:
(A) Petitioner
(B) Respondent
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer: B
Q28. Which of the following statement hold true for adjudicatory bodies:
(A) Doctrine of stare decisis applies to them
(B) Doctrine of Res judicata does not apply to them
(C) Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the parties
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q29. The Supreme Court held in V.C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that:
(A) He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction
(B) He has lived a consistent life of integrity
(C) He possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings
(D) The burden is on the applicant to establish that he entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions.
Answer: C
Q30. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on:
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Supreme Court of India guidelines
(C) European Commercial Arbitration Procedure
(D) UNCITRAL
Answer: D
Q31. Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding public prospectus:
(A) SEBI
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) National Company Law Tribunal
Answer: A
Q32. Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927:
(A) Rams
(B) Kids
(C) Kitten
(D) None of these
Answer: C
Q33. The provisions of the Arbitration and conciliation Act of 1996 have to be interpreted by being influenced by the principles underlying the 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
(A) M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd.
(B) Sundaram Finance Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. Ltd.
(C) Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meera Vijay
(D) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissari Pvt. Ltd.
Answer: B
Q34. Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Company by an auditor appointed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Actuarial Services
(C) Managerial Services
(D) All of these
Answer: D
Q35. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, any person who teases an animal in a zoo may be punished:
(A) with fine which may extend to 5000
(B) with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 year
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) or (B)
Answer: D
Q36. The entry on forests and protection of Wild animals and birds was moved from.............by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India:
(A) Centre list to State list
(B) Centre list to Concurrent list
(C) State list to Concurrent list
(D) State list to Union list
Answer: C
Q37. Droit des Gens (Law of Nations) 1758 was written by:
(A) Cornelius van Bynkershoek
(B) Emerich de Vattel
(C) Richard Zouch
(D) Jean Bodin
Answer: B
Q38. What is true of perpetual injunction:
(A) It is a judicial process
(B) preventive in nature
(C) The thing prevented is a wrongful act
(D) all of the above
Answer: B
Q39. The provisions of...........do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926:
(A) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
(B) The Companies Act, 1956
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: C
Q40. According to Salmond every legal right:
(A) Cannot be vested in a person
(B) can avail against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty
(C) Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in favour of the person entitled
(D) Cannot have a title
Answer: B
Q41. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by:
(A) Public opinion
(B) Abrogated decision
(C) Res judicata
(D) Lis pendens
Answer: B
Q42. Which of the following in true in respect of Government contract which does not confirm to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution:
(A) They are not enforceable in court against the parties
(B) They can be rectified by the Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither nor
Answer: A
Q43. State Bar Council under the provisions of Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to:
(A) Reprimand the advocate
(B) Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit
(C) Remove the name of the advocates from the State roll of advocates.
(D) All of these
Answer: D
Q44. Which of the following is untrue regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the state rolls maintained by State Bar Councils:
(A) the minimum age of requirement is 21 years
(B) He must be an Indian Citizen
(C) He must not have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
(D) They must not have been convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1958
Answer: B
Q45. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of:
(A) Minority
(B) Insanity
(C) Idiocy
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q 46. To establish Section 34:
(A) Common Intention must be proved but not overt act is required to be proved.
(B) Common intention and overt act both are required to be proved
(C) Common intention need not be proved but only overt act is required to be proved
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q47. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the appropriate Government can by order in writing:
(A) Refer the dispute to a Board for promoting a settlement of the dispute
(B) Refer any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to a court for inquiry
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: C
Q48. Which of the following statement is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman?
(A) Even when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful, the court may not yet order reinstatement if the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position of trust and there was loss of confidence.
(B) Loss of confidence may also be a ground for discharge simpliciter of the workman.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: C
Q49. Under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation for filing complaint before the National Commission is:
(A) 1 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(B) 2 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(C) 3 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(D) 4 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
Answer: B
Q50. Grievous hurt under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 means:
(A) Grievous hurt as defined in IPC
(B) Grievous hurt as defined in medical laws
(C) Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitioner
(D) none of the above
Answer: A
