Practice the AIBE 11 (2017) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from:
(A) French administration
(B) British Administration
(C) Swedish Administration
(D) German Administration
Answer: C
Q2. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by:
(A) Central Government or State Govt.
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) State Public Commission
(D) Supreme Court of India
Answer: A
Q3. Information Technology Act was enacted in:
(A) 1988
(B) 1996
(C) 2000
(D) 2004
Answer: C
Q4. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective:
(A) To provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
(B) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the Government
(C) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q5. What is meant by Homicide:
(A) Suicide by human being not at home
(B) Suicide at home
(C) Killing of a human being by another human being
(D) Killing of human being by animal
Answer: C
Q6. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence:
(A) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
(B) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
(C) Under Section 272-273 of IPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q7. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is:
(A) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
(C) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
(D) Death sentence
Answer: D
Q8. Offences relating to elections are:
(A) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
(B) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
(C) Are not covered by IPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q9. Rupa Bajaj v. KPS Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on:
(A) Wrongful restraint
(B) Wrongful confinement
(C) Outrage the modesty of a women
(D) Maintenance to the divorced wife
Answer: C
Q10. The case Krishna Gopal v. State of M.P. relates to:
(A) Water pollution
(B) Air and water pollution
(C) Noise and air pollution
(D) Water and noise pollution
Answer: C
Q11. What is the punishment for advocates if the established findings of the Bar Council is misappropriation:
(A) Impose a fine
(B) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
(C) Suspension from practice
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q12. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to:
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Bar Council of India
(D) Indian Law Commission
Answer: C
Q13. Which section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates:
(A) Section 29
(B) Section 35
(C) Section 37
(D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q14. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with:
(A) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the bar
(B) Qualification to become the Advocate General
(C) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
(D) (B) and (C)
Answer: A
Q15. Under the Workmen's Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation:
(A) Insurance certificate
(B) Medical examination
(C) Medical Certificate
(D) (B) and (C)
Answer: D
Q16. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 says that the commissioner shall have the power of:
(A) A Court
(B) A Tribunal
(C) A quasi judicial form
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q17. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947:
(A) Industrial peace and economic justice
(B) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
(C) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q18. Section 2(q) of Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 provides the definition of:
(A) Lock out
(B) Lay off
(C) Strike
(D) Hartal
Answer: C
Q19. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from:
(A) 1st March, 1955
(B) 1st March, 1986
(C) 1st March, 1994
(D) 1st March, 1894
Answer: D
Q20. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land means:
(A) Useful for residential purpose
(B) Useful for commercial purpose
(C) Useful for cultivation
(D) Useful for industrial purpose
Answer: C
Q21. Section 154 under IT Act is:
(A) For filing return of Income
(B) For filing return with late fee
(C) Rectification of mistakes
(D) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
Answer: C
Q22. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset as defined under Section 2(14) of Income Tax Act:
(A) Any stock in trade
(B) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q23. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by:
(A) The Tribunal
(B) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
(C) The petitioner
(D) The Defendant
Answer: B
Q24. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated:
(A) On making of the final award
(B) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
(C) When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q25. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be:
(A) Order of District Collector
(B) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
(C) Decree of a Civil Court
(D) (A) and (B) Court
Answer: C
Q26. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Section 18-27 states:
(A) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
(B) Receipt and Written Communications
(C) Extent of judicial Arbitration
(D) Awarding final decision
Answer: A
Q27. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given state under Section 271 of CrPC:
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) (A) and (B)
Answer: * (Question rejected by monitoring committee)
Q28. A decree can be:
(A) Final
(B) Preliminary
(C) Only Preliminary not final
(D) Either preliminary or final
Answer: D
Q29. Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC:
(A) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
(B) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
(C) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q30. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under:
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 315
(C) Article 320
(D) Article 325
Answer: B
Q31. Right to Personal liberty includes:
(A) Right against custodial violence
(B) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
(C) Right against Public hanging
(D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q32. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is:
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) The Defence Minister
(D) Chief Marshal
Answer: A
Q33. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges:
(A) 62 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 58 years
(D) 65 years
Answer: D
Q34. Criminal Procedure code is a subject of:
(A) Concurrent list
(B) State list
(C) Union list
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q35. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in:
(A) Section 2(a) of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 2(b) of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 2(c) of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of IPC
Answer: A
Q36. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C. Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by:
(A) Central Government
(B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court
(D) State Government
Answer: D
Q37. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person:
(A) Under Section 49, Cr.P.C.
(B) Under Section 50, Cr.P.C.
(C) Under Section 51, Cr.P.C.
(D) Under Section 52, Cr.P.C.
Answer: C
Q38. The Special Court is:
(A) Not subordinate to High Court
(B) Superior to High Court
(C) Supplement to High Court
(D) Equal to Supreme Court
Answer: * (Question rejected by monitoring committee)
Q39. The powers under 159 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by a Magistrate:
(A) When the police decides not to investigate the case
(B) When the investigation is still going on
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q40. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 can be used in trial:
(A) For contradicting the witness
(B) For corroborating the witness
(C) Incorporating in the charge sheet
(D) Discharging the accused
Answer: A
Q41. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided:
(A) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
(B) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q42. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr.P.C.:
(A) Under Section 214
(B) Under Section 215
(C) Under Section 216
(D) Under Section 210
Answer: C
Q43. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means:
(A) All statements made before the Court by the witness
(B) All statement made before the police by the accused
(C) All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
(D) All of the above
Answer: * (Question rejected by monitoring committee)
Q44. Under the Indian Evidence Act, Court includes:
(A) All Judges
(B) All Magistrates
(C) All Arbitrators
(D) (A) and (B)
Answer: D
Q45. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of:
(A) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q46. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act:
(A) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
(B) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
(C) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
(D) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
Answer: C
Q47. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 provides:
(A) Possession of driving licence while driving
(B) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
(C) Revoking driving licence if drunk drive is detected
(D) State Government's Power to control the road transport
Answer: D
Q48. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption:
(A) Must be a Hindu only
(B) A Hindu or Jew
(C) May be Hindu or Christian
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q49. Polygamy was permitted in Hindus before the year:
(A) 1956
(B) 1954
(C) 1955
(D) 1978
Answer: C
Q50. Mohan gets married to his sister's daughter Kirti:
(A) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
(B) The marriage is void
(C) The Marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
(D) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat permits
Answer: A
PART 2 :- Click Here
