Practice the AIBE 14 (2019) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Which of the following is an infringement of a Registered Trade Mark:
(A) Use of a mark identical to the Trade Mark in relation to goods without authorisation
(B) Advertising of that Trade Mark such that the advertisement is against the reputation of the Trade Mark
(C) Use of that Trade Mark as a business name without authorisation
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q52. A person undergoing life imprisonment, if attempts to commit murder and hurt is caused thereby, he may be punished with:
(A) Life Imprisonment
(B) Death
(C) Imprisonment
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q53. The provisions relating to dowry is given under:
(A) Section 304-B of the IPC
(B) Section 304-A of the IPC
(C) Section 304 of the IPC
(D) Section 305-B of the IPC
Answer: A
Q54. Which of the following section is designed to curb infanticide:
(A) Section 317 of the IPC
(B) Section 313 of the IPC
(C) Section 318 of the IPC
(D) Section 315 of the IPC
Answer: D
Q55. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 incorporates the fault theory of divorce?
(A) Section 13(1)
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 13B
(D) Section 13(2)
Answer: A & D
Q56. Under the Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 in which of the following circumstances can a dependent enforce his right to maintenance against a transferee of an estate out of which he has a right to receive maintenance:
(A) Only when the Transferee has notice of such right
(B) Only when the transfer is gratuitous
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q57. Which of the following Courts/Tribunals cannot entertain a Public Interest Litigation:
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) Central Administrative Tribunal
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q58. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 come into effect on:
(A) 24th August, 1986
(B) 15th April, 1986
(C) 24th May, 1986
(D) 24th December, 1986
Answer: B
Q59. Which one of the following sections of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines the term ‘Consumer’?
(A) Section 2(1)(a)
(B) Section 2(1)(b)
(C) Section 2(1)(c)
(D) Section 2(1)(d)
Answer: D
Q60. The principle of Law of Taxation that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”. It is contained under:
(A) Article 265 of the Constitution
(B) Article 300 of the Constitution
(C) Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution
(D) Article 285 of the Constitution
Answer: A
Q61. Under which section of Income Tax Act “Income of other persons are included in assessee’s total income”?
(A) Sections 56-58
(B) Sections 139-147
(C) Sections 246-262
(D) Section 60-65
Answer: D
Q62. The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on:
(A) First Day of January, 1894
(B) First Day of February, 1894
(C) First Day of March, 1894
(D) First Day of April, 1894
Answer: C
Q63. Which of the following sentences can the Court of Session pass:
(A) Death Sentence
(B) Rigorous Imprisonment
(C) Simple Imprisonment
(D) Any sentence authorized by law but Death Sentence must be confirmed by the High Court
Answer: D
Q64. Which of the following is not a requirement for a foreign judgment to be conclusive:
(A) It must be given on merits of the case
(B) It must be pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction
(C) It was not obtained by fraud
(D) It is by a Court in an enemy country
Answer: D
Q65. Which order has been specially enacted to protect the interest of Minors and Unsound Mind:
(A) Order 31
(B) Order 32
(C) Order 33
(D) Order 34
Answer: B
Q66. Which order of the CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings in a Court?
(A) Order 6
(B) Order 7
(C) Order 8
(D) Order 9
Answer: A
Q67. Second appeal under Section 100 is applicable:
(A) Substantial question of Law as formulated by the High Court
(B) Substantial question of law as not formulated by the High Court
(C) An appellate decree passed Ex Parte
(D) All of the above
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q68. Writ of certiorari can be issued against:
(A) Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies
(B) Quasi Judicial and Administrative bodies
(C) Administrative bodies only
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q69. Supreme Court of India held that it is permanent obligation of every member of medical profession either government or private to give medical aid to every injured person brought for treatment immediately without waiting for procedural formalities in the case of:
(A) Common Cause v. Union of India, (1996) 1 SC 753
(B) Peoples Union of India, AIR 1983 SC 339
(C) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 2039
(D) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India, (1984) 25 SCC 244
Answer: C
Q70. The Supreme Court of India has issued the direction to make the CBI independent agency so that it may function more effectively and investigate crimes and corruption at high places like the case of:
(A) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms AIR 2002 SC 1212
(B) Bangalore Medical Trust v. B.C. Muddappa (1991) 4S SC 54
(C) Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India (1987) 2 SC 165
(D) Vincent Narayan v. Union of India, AIR 1998 SC 869
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q71. If it is proved that a man has not been heard of for......by those who would naturally have heard of him if he were alive, the presumption under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act is that he is dead:
(A) 5 year
(B) 7 years
(C) 15 year
(D) 20 year
Answer: B
Q72. A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in the open Court, such evidence would be treated as:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Secondary evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Answer: A
Q73. Which of the following is not a public document?
(A) Bank Books
(B) Post-Mortem Report
(C) Judgment of the High Court
(D) Registered Sale Deed
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q74. Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the:
(A) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(B) Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Answer: C
Q75. In which case Supreme Court held that whether teachers are not workmen?
(A) Dharangadhra Chemical Work Ltd. v. State of Saurashtra, AIR 1957 SC 264
(B) University of Delhi v. Ram Nath, AIR 1963 SC 1873
(C) J.K. Cotton Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. L.T., AIR 1964 SC 737
(D) Sunderambal v. Government of Goa, AIR (1988) SC 1700
Answer: D
Q76. Under Section 2(cc) of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 ‘Closure’ means:
(A) The permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof
(B) The partly closing down of a place of employment or part thereof
(C) The temporary closing down of a place of employment or part thereof
(D) The short term closing down of a place of employment or part of thereof
Answer: A
Q77. A reference can be made during the pendency of the case:
(A) The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of law
(B) The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of evidence
(C) The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of fact
(D) The Subordinate Court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of court procedure
Answer: A
Q78. A person can apply for review of judgment when:
(A) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal has been preferred
(B) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is allowed
(C) He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a Court of small causes
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q79. In which of the following cases, the remedy of revision is not available?
(A) Cases in which first appeal lies
(B) Cases in which second appeal lies
(C) Interlocutory orders
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q80. Which one is a Foreign Award:
(A) An award in arbitration where at least one part is non-Indian
(B) An award passed in a foreign seated arbitration
(C) An award passed in an arbitration where both the parties are non-Indian
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q81. If a man marries a girl who is within his prohibited relationship and his custom does not permit such marriage, such a man would be punished under:
(A) Section 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(B) Section 18(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(C) Section 18(b) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(D) No punishment for such marriages
Answer: C
Q82. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 13(a)
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 16
Answer: D
Q83. Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act:
(A) Motive
(B) Attempt
(C) Conduct
(D) Preparation
Answer: B
Q84. BATNA stands for:
(A) Bilateral agreement to negotiation and arbitration
(B) Best alternative to a negotiated agreement
(C) Bilateral Trade negotiated agreement
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q85. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with:
(A) Interim measures by the Court
(B) Directions powers of the Court
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q86. From which of the following countries, the Constitution of India has borrowed the ‘Power of Judicial Review’?
(A) Canada
(B) United Kingdom
(C) USA
(D) Ireland
Answer: C
Q87. Enforcement of which of the following articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during the proclamation of emergency?
(A) 14 & 19
(B) 20 & 21
(C) 23 & 24
(D) 21 & 22
Answer: B
Q88. Effect of ‘not negotiable’ crossing is mentioned under:
(A) Section 125
(B) Section 130
(C) Section 131
(D) Section 128
Answer: B
Q89. Section 16 of Negotiable Instrument defines:
(A) Restrictive endorsement
(B) Conditional endorsement
(C) Indorsement “in full” and indorsement “in blank”
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q90. Under which one of the following section of Cr.P.C., police officer is under obligation to inform the accused ground of right to bail:
(A) Section 49
(B) Section 50
(C) Section 57
(D) Section 60
Answer: B
Q91. Under what circumstance court can issue an order for the attachment of property of person absconding:
(A) Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of the whole of his property
(B) Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to dispose of any part of his property
(C) Where the person to whom proclamation is issued is about to remove the whole or any part of his property from the jurisdiction of the Court
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q92. Inherent power under Section 482 CrPC can be exercised by:
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Court of Session
(C) The High Court
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q93. Which one of the following is true about Latin Maxim ‘Ubi Jus Ibi remedium’?
(A) Where there is right, there is remedy
(B) Where there is remedy, there is right
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q94. The Latin word ‘Injuria Sine Damnum’ Literally means:
(A) Infringement of legal right without damages
(B) Damages without infringement of legal right
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q95. The provision relating to claims Tribunal is given under ..... of Motor Vehicles Act:
(A) Section 165-175
(B) Section 175-180
(C) Section 170-175
(D) Section 171-177
Answer: A
Q96. Public Interest litigation is relaxation of which of the following requirements:
(A) Jurisdiction
(B) Locus Standi
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q97. Which of the following is not a case of Public Interest Litigation:
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(B) Vincent Narayan v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 889
(C) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms, AIR 2002 SC 2112
(D) Vincent Panikurlangara v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 990
Answer: A
Q98. Which of the following can be done by a Senior Advocate in accordance with the Rules of Bar Council of India:
(A) Make concessions on behalf of client on instructions from junior advocate
(B) Accept instructions to draft a pleading
(C) Accept brief directly from a client
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q99. “Mesne Profits” of property means:
(A) Those profits by which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might have received therefrom, together with interest on such profits
(B) The profits due to improvements made by person in wrongful possession
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q100. Which of the following is not a legal representative:
(A) Executor and administrators
(B) Hindu coparceners
(C) Creditor
(D) Intermeddler
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
