Practice the AIBE 14 (2019) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The case of Muhammad Allahdad Khan v. Muhammad Ismail Khan is related to:
(A) Pre-emption
(B) Gift
(C) Mahr
(D) Acknowledgement of paternity
Answer: D
Q2. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court was in 2017 declared pronouncements of talaq three times at a time by a Muslim husband as unconstitutional?
(A) Shayara Bano v. Union of India
(B) Shassmin Ara v. State of U.P.
(C) Batihaira v. Ali Hasan
(D) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
Answer: A
Q3. ‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells ‘Z’ that they will fire at ‘Z’ if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building. ‘A’
(A) Wrongfully restrains Z
(B) Wrongfully confines Z
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q4. ‘A’ intends a dog to spring upon ‘Z’, without Z’s consent. If ‘A’ intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to Z:
(A) ‘A’ uses force to ‘Z’
(B) ‘A’ assaulted ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ uses criminal force to ‘Z’
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q5. ‘A’ causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to ‘Z’, intending to cause and knowing that he is likely to cause damage to ‘Z’ crop. ‘A’ has committed:
(A) Mischief
(B) Criminal trespassing
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Extortion
Answer: A
Q6. Which one of the following sentence is correctly method:
(A) In India, consideration must follow from promisee only
(B) In India, consideration must follow from only promisor or only promisee
(C) In India, consideration must follow from promisor or any other promisee
(D) In India, consideration must follow from promisee or any other person
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q7. Assertion (A): Collateral transactions to wagering are valid. Reason (R): Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act. Codes:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
Answer: D
Q8. Term ‘holder’ include:
(A) The payee
(B) The bearer
(C) The endorsee
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q9. Rule of Law means:
(A) Equality before the Law
(B) Supremacy of the Law
(C) Predominance of legal spirit
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q10. The purpose of writ of ‘Quo warranto’ is?
(A) To compel public authority to perform duty
(B) To restrain public authority to do illegal act
(C) To oust illegal occupant of a public post
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q11. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is not relevant in which of the following cases:
(A) Previous good character of an accused in criminal case
(B) Previous bad character in reply to good character in criminal case
(C) Character to prove conduct imputed is civil case
(D) Character affected the amount of damages is civil case
Answer: C
Q12. Which one of the following is primary evidence:
(A) Document produced for the inspection of the Court
(B) Copies made from original
(C) Certified copies of the document
(D) Photostat copies of a document
Answer: A
Q13. Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution Parliament is empowered to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in National Interest?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 252
(D) Article 253
Answer: A
Q14. In which of the following cases the Court has laid down that ‘Right to life’ does not include ‘Right to die’?
(A) State v. Sanjay Kr. Bhatia
(B) Smt. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(C) R. v. Holdiday
(D) P. Rathinam v. UOI
Answer: B
Q15. The question whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided by:
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Finance Minister
(C) The President
(D) The Speaker, Lok Sabha
Answer: D
Q16. Decision under 10th Schedule is taken by:
(A) President
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Presiding officers of Houses
Answer: D
Q17. Under which one of the following section of CrPC, police officer can arrest an accused without warrant?
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 41
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 43
Answer: B
Q18. Which one of the following courts, under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 can try a murder case:
(A) Judicial Magistrate 1st class
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) Court of Session
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q19. It deals with Internal Management and Affairs of company:
(A) Prospectus
(B) Article of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) Debenture
Answer: B
Q20. Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in:
(A) 1991
(B) 1993
(C) 1995
(D) 1997
Answer: A
Q21. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under:
(A) Indian Forest Act
(B) Air Act
(C) Wildlife Protection Act
(D) Environment Protection Act
Answer: D
Q22. The liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is:
(A) Strict liability
(B) Vicarious liability
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q23. The objectives of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 are:
(A) An act to amend the law for the acquisition of land for public purposes and for industry
(B) An Act to amend the law for the purchase of land for public purpose and for business
(C) An Act to amend the law for the possessions of land for public purpose and for manufacturing
(D) An Act to amend the law for the Acquisition of land for public purposes and for companies
Answer: D
Q24. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 a Muslim wife can seek dissolution of marriage if the husband fails to perform marital obligation for:
(A) 2 year
(B) 3 year
(C) 1 year
(D) 5 year
Answer: B
Q25. The Concept of ‘Curative’ petition was introduced by the Supreme Court of India in the case of:
(A) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra, AIR 2002 SC 1771
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1087
(C) Krishna Swami v. Union of India, (1992) 45 CC 605
(D) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 35 CC 596
Answer: A
Q26. Right to Fare Legal Aid was recognised as a Fundamental Right under Act 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of:
(A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1360
(B) M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548
(C) Madhu Mehta v. Union of India, (1989) 4 SC 1548
(D) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 45 SC 14
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q27. Which one of the following sections of CrPC deals with irregularities which vitiate proceedings:
(A) Section 460
(B) Section 461
(C) Section 462
(D) Section 468
Answer: B
Q28. Which of the following is not an essential element of a decree:
(A) Conclusive determination of the rights of the parties
(B) Formal expression of adjudication
(C) An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appeal from an order
(D) The adjudication must have been given in a suit before the Court
Answer: C
Q29. Residuary Powers in India may be exercised by:
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislatures
(C) President
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer: A
Q30. The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provision of I.P.C. are:
(A) Death and imprisonment for life
(B) Rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment
(C) Forfeiture of property and fine
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q31. 'Marginal Rules form the basis of the law of:
(A) Infancy
(B) Insanity
(C) Ignorance of fact
(D) Mistake
Answer: B
Q32. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that an International Commercial Arbitration is one which has its juridical or legal seat of arbitration outside India:
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A., (2002) 4 SCC 105
(B) Bharat Aluminium Company v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc., (2012) 9 SCC 552
(C) Booz Allen and Hamilton Inc. v. SBI Home Finance Limited, (2011) 5 SCC 532
(D) Vimal Kishore Shah v. Jayesh Dinesh Shah, (2016) 8 SCC 788
Answer: A
Q33. Which of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down for the escheat:
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 29
Answer: D
Q34. The authentication to be affected by the use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as:
(A) Public key
(B) Private key
(C) Digital Signature
(D) Electronic Governance
Answer: C
Q35. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism under Section 66F shall be punishable:
(A) With imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine not exceeding two lakh rupees or with both
(B) With imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine
(C) With imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
(D) With imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine
Answer: C
Q36. Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 define “Industry” means any:
(i) Business, trade, undertaking
(ii) Manufacture or calling of employers
(iii) Included any calling, service, employment, handicraft
(iv) Industrial occupation of workmen
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q37. One of the following statements is not true, which one is that:
(A) A confession by one co-accused implicating other co-accused would be proved
(B) A confession to a police-officer cannot be proved
(C) A confession by a person in the custody of a police officer to any person in the presence of magistrate can be proved
(D) If the confession of a person leads to recovery of a thing it can be proved
Answer: C
Q38. The Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P. is a leading case on:
(A) Dying declaration
(B) Admission
(C) Confession to police officer
(D) Confession of a co-accused
Answer: D
Q39. For the first time in India Income Tax was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:
(A) 1886
(B) 1868
(C) 1860
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q40. In which case Justice J.C. Shah of S.C. observed “Since by the exercise of the power a serious invasion is made upon the rights, privacy and freedom of the tax payer, the power must be exercised strictly in accordance with law and only for the purpose for which law authorises it to be exercised”.
(A) Director of Inspection v. Pooranmal
(B) ITO v. Seth Brothers
(C) P.R. Metrani v. CIT
(D) None of the above
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q41. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority
(ii) Minor’s contract be ratified on attaining majority
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q42. Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate in Court:
(A) To not commit breach of Section 126 of the Evidence Act
(B) To not appear on behalf of any organization of whose Executive Committee, he is a member
(C) To not appear before a Court, Tribunal or Authority in which his near, relation is a member
(D) To conduct himself with dignity and self-respect during presentation of a case before a Court and otherwise before a Court
Answer: A
Q43. Which of the following rules of Chapter II of Part VI of the Bar Council Rules deal with the duty of an Advocate in respect of any moneys received by him from client:
(A) Rule 25
(B) Rule 33
(C) Rule 24
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q44. Under which of the following sections of CrPC provisions relating to police report are given?
(A) Section 173(2)(i)
(B) Section 177
(C) Section 174(2)(i)
(D) Section 175
Answer: A
Q45. Which one of the following provisions of CrPC deals with anticipatory bail?
(A) Section 437
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q46. The provision relating to cancellation of bond and bail bond is given under:
(A) Section 446-A
(B) Section 446
(C) Section 447
(D) Section 450
Answer: A
Q47. Which of the following provisions of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the power of Bar Council of India to withdraw to itself, any proceedings for disciplinary action pending before any State Bar Council:
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 37
(C) Section 36(2)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q48. Which Court or Authority has the power to punish any person for contempt of the National Company Law Tribunal:
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
(D) National Company Law Tribunal
Answer: D
Q49. Which of the following is not a vested interest:
(A) ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ on his death
(B) ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ on the death of ‘B’
(C) ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ if he marries ‘B’
(D) ‘A’ stipulates that title in a property shall pass to ‘C’ after ten years
Answer: C
Q50. Which of the following is wrong in respect of the law of Copyright:
(A) Copyright protects only the expression and not idea
(B) There is no copyright in respect of a fact
(C) There is no copyright in a government work
(D) Copyright doesn’t require registration
Answer: C
