Practice the AIBE 6 (2014) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Ratilal v. State of Bombay is a popular case on the point of:
(A) Res judicata
(B) Res sub judice
(C) Restitution
(D) Doctrine of Cy-pres
Answer: (D)
Q52. Pick out the case under Section 58(1-A), in which arrest or detention in civil prison is not maintainable.
(A) A judgment debtor, where decretal amount does not exceed ₹5,000/-
(B) A judgment debtor, where decretal amount does not exceed ₹2,500/-
(C) A judgment debtor, where decretal amount does not exceed ₹2,000/-
(D) A judgment debtor, where decretal amount does not exceed ₹1,000/-
Answer: (C)
Q53. A precept seeks to .......... of the judgment debtor.
(A) Attach the property
(B) Prevent alienation of property
(C) Prevent attachment and alienation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q54. Rule 90 of Order 21 deals with:
(A) Pre-sale illegalities committed in the execution
(B) Post-sale irregularities causing substantial injury to judgment debtor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q55. The place of suing in a suit for partition will be:
(A) Court within whose jurisdiction the person is residing
(B) Court within whose jurisdiction the elder person of the family resides
(C) Court within whose jurisdiction the entire property of the family is situated
(D) Court within whose jurisdiction the immovable property is situated
Answer: (D)
Q56. Appeal against a decree or order can be filed in a High Court within:
(A) 60 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 91 days
Answer: (C)
Q57. Where, before the expiration of the prescribed period for a suit or application in respect of any property or right, an acknowledgment of liability in respect of such property or right has been made in writing signed by the party against whom such property or right is claimed, or by any person through whom he derives his title or liability:
(A) A fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed.
(B) Limitation shall be computed from the time when originally the signature has been given.
(C) A fresh period of limitation shall not be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q58. The period of limitation for an action by a principal against his agent for movable property received by the latter and not accounted for is:
(A) 12 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No limitation
Answer: (B)
Q59. Which of following is a ground recognized under the Companies Act for automatic adjournment of the General Meeting?
(A) Absence of Chairman of the meeting
(B) Quorum of the meeting is not present
(C) Meeting is held at a place different from what was prescribed in the notice
(D) Death of any of the directors prior to the meeting
Answer: (B)
Q60. Which of the following meetings can be called by members:
(A) Extra-ordinary General Meeting
(B) Annual General Meeting
(C) Statutory Meeting
(D) Special Meeting
Answer: (A)
Q61. Which of the following powers can be exercised by the Board of Directors without holding a meeting:
(A) Power to issue debentures
(B) Power to invest funds of the company
(C) Power to make loans
(D) Power to appoint additional director
Answer: (D)
Q62. Which of following is not a ground for compulsory winding up of a company:
(A) Oppression of Minority
(B) Loss of substratum
(C) Non-holding of annual general meeting
(D) Losses to the company
Answer: (C)
Q63. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under:
(A) Section 385 IPC
(B) Section 386 IPC
(C) Section 387 IPC
(D) Section 388 IPC
Answer: (C)
Q64. F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:
(A) C must be convicted of manslaughter
(B) C must not be convicted of manslaughter
(C) C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only
(D) C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor the death of F
Answer: (A)
Q65. Literally, mens rea means:
(A) Guilty mind
(B) Guilty or a wrongful purpose
(C) Criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q66. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under:
(A) Revenue Acts
(B) Public Nuisance
(C) Criminal case which are in summary mode
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
Q67. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?
(A) A deed, a material result of human conduct
(B) The intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime.
(C) Putting to death
(D) Un commanded manner
Answer: (B)
Q68. Cheating and thereby dishonestly inducing delivery of property, or the making alteration or destruction of a valuable security is dealt under:
(A) Section 417 IPC
(B) Section 418 IPC
(C) Section 419 IPC
(D) Section 420 IPC
Answer: (D)
Q69. Etymologically what is meant by jurisprudence?
(A) Knowledge of law
(B) Science of law
(C) Science of origin
(D) Knowledge of origin
Answer: (A)
Q70. What is meant by the term 'General Law'?
(A) It consists of general ordinary law of the land.
(B) It consists of those legal rules which are taken judicial notice of by the Court.
(C) It consists of those bodies and legal rules which are exceptional in nature.
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
Q71. According to the theory of 'social utilitarianism' as propounded by Ihering:
(A) Greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure
(B) The essential body of legal rules is always based upon the social "facts" of law
(C) A balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society
(D) Law is a means to social ends
Answer: (D)
Q72. A is the mother of B. She becomes a widow and re-marries. B dies. Can A succeed to him as mother? (Both are Hindus)
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Depends on their School
(D) Only when B has no sons
Answer: (B)
Q73. Referring to Section 6 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act the Supreme Court observed that the words "after him" does not mean "after the life time of the father". Indeed it means "in the absence of". If the father is non functional as guardian for various reasons like indifference, physical or mental incapacity, away from the place where the child lives with the mother, by mutual understanding, it may be treated as the "absence" of the father. In which case?
(A) Lily Thomas case
(B) Sarla Mudgal case
(C) Githa Hariharan case
(D) Goverdhan Lal case
Answer: (C)
Q74. By a recent amendment the daughter of a coparcener by birth becomes a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as the son. Which Amendment?
(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006
(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2012
Answer: (B)
Q75. Shamim Ara v. State of U.P. relates to:
(A) The condition precedent for a Muslim husband for rendering divorce is the pronouncement of divorce which has to be proved on evidence.
(B) Option of puberty
(C) Guardianship in Marriage
(D) Dower
Answer: (A)
Q76. The provision under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which guarantees the right of workmen laid-off to claim compensation:
(A) Section 25-C
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 25-O
(D) Section 25-A
Answer: (A)
Q77. The number of persons required to form trade union:
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: (B)
Q78. The temporary closing of the work place or suspension of the work at work place by the employer is known as:
(A) Lay off
(B) Lockout
(C) Retrenchment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q79. Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices?
(A) The Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Factories Act
(C) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q80. Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act refers to:
(A) Voluntary reference of disputes to arbitration
(B) Definition of Workman
(C) Definition of industry
(D) Appeals
Answer: (A)
Q81. Wages under Workmen's Compensation Act:
(A) Includes any privilege or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money.
(B) Does not include any privilege or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money.
(C) Includes any privilege or benefit which is not capable of being estimated in money.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q82. Writ of Certiorari is issued against:
(A) Lower courts or quasi-judicial bodies
(B) Public Officials
(C) Wrongful confinement
(D) Usurpation of public office
Answer: (A)
Q83. Audi Alteram Partem means:
(A) Bias
(B) Hear the other side
(C) No one can be a judge in his own case
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q84. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission is constituted:
(A) 31st August, 2004
(B) 31st August, 2006
(C) 31st August, 2005
(D) 31st August, 2007
Answer: (C)
Q85. The type of damages awarded in the law of torts:
(A) Liquidated Damages
(B) Unliquidated damages
(C) Penal damages
(D) Exemplary damages
Answer: (B)
Q86. Ashby v. White is an example of:
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Uberrimae fidei
(C) Injuria sine damnum
(D) Ubi jus ibi remedium
Answer: (C)
Q87. The Supreme Court of India invoked the principle of absolute liability on an enterprise carrying on business with hazardous and inherently dangerous toxic chemicals in:
(A) Ganga Pollution case
(B) Fletcher case
(C) Sri Ram Fertilizers case
(D) Prabhu Dayal case
Answer: (C)
Q88. Res ipsa loquitur means:
(A) Things speak for themselves
(B) Tithes imperiled
(C) Vicarious liability
(D) Dangerous animals
Answer: (A)
Q89. A motorcycle with engine capacity not exceeding 50cc may be driven in a public place by a person:
(A) After attaining the age of sixteen years
(B) After attaining the age of eighteen years
(C) After attaining the age of fifteen years
(D) After attaining the age of twenty years
Answer: (A)
Q90. According to Consumer Protection Act, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction over complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceeds rupees:
(A) 2 lakhs
(B) 10 lakhs
(C) 20 lakhs
(D) 50 lakhs
Answer: (C)
Q91. New states are created under:
(A) Article 3 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Article 4 of the Indian Constitution
(C) Article 5 of the Indian Constitution
(D) Article 370 of the Indian Constitution
Answer: (A)
Q92. Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is mentioned under:
(A) Article 311 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Article 308 of the Indian Constitution
(C) Article 301 of the Indian Constitution
(D) Article 310 of the Indian Constitution
Answer: (D)
Q93. Right to know flows from one of these Articles of the Constitution:
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 20
(D) Article 23
Answer: (B)
Q94. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India is mentioned under:
(A) Article 19(1)(g)
(B) Article 300A
(C) Article 301
(D) Article 299
Answer: (C)
Q95. Passive euthanasia under certain circumstances is permissible—held in the case of:
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(C) State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Sripaty Dubal
(D) P. Rathinam v. Union of India
Answer: (A)
Q96. It was held by the Supreme Court that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is the bedrock and the basic structure of the Constitution—in which case?
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(D) Kihota Hollohon v. Zachillhu
Answer: (B)
Q97. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa is often quoted with reference to:
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
(B) Doctrine of Severability
(C) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
(D) Doctrine of Territorial Nexus
Answer: (C)
Q98. Raja Ram Pal v. Hon'ble Speaker, Lok Sabha deals with:
(A) President's election
(B) Privileges of the Legislature
(C) Pardoning power
(D) Office of profit
Answer: (B)
Q99. Under Article 1 of the Constitution, India that is Bharat shall be:
(A) Federation of States
(B) Union of States
(C) Democratic Republic
(D) Quasi-federal
Answer: (B)
Q100. A Minister ceases to hold office if he does not become a member of the Legislature within six months—is mentioned under:
(A) Article 164(4)
(B) Article 164(1)
(C) Article 164(2)
(D) Article 164(3)
Answer: (A)
