Practice the AIBE 21 (2026) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The term "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" was first used by:
(A) Prof. Abram Chayes
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Prof. Upendra Baxi
(D) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Answer: (A)
Q2. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committee appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the Official Gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages.
Conclusion I: If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date.
Conclusion II: If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(B) Only Conclusion I follows
(C) Only Conclusion II follows
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (A)
Q3. Which of the following is included in the Central Government's power under Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(A) Carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution
(B) Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects
(C) Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution
(D) Planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution
Answer: (D)
Q4. Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments:
I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments.
II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure.
III. Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is unlimited.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer: (B)
Q5. What do you mean by "onus probandi"?
(A) "Burden of proof" which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence.
(B) "The fact to be proved" or the "ultimate fact" that needs to be established in a legal case, such as the core elements of a crime or a cause of action.
(C) The prosecution in a criminal case must prove beyond a reasonable doubt, not only a criminal act, but also a certain level of a guilty mind (mens rea), specified in the criminal statute.
(D) Actual evidence, documents, or witnesses presented to substantiate that claim.
Answer: (A)
Q6. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows:
(A) That decree has not yet been passed.
(B) Sufficient cause for not making the application within time.
(C) Error apparent on the face of record.
(D) That the defendant had knowledge of death.
Answer: (B)
Q7. According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall:
(A) Treat the claimant's allegations as admitted.
(B) Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant's case as uncontroverted.
(C) Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission.
(D) Terminate the proceedings.
Answer: (C)
Q8. Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded?
(A) For a fixed term not exceeding ten years
(B) For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff
(C) For a period determined solely by the Registrar
(D) For a maximum of five years only
Answer: (B)
Q9. The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights?
(A) Right to speedy trial
(B) Right to clean and healthy environment
(C) Right to emergency medical care
(D) Right to life and personal liberty
Answer: (C)
Q10. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal (2020) 7 SCC 1 is a landmark judgment on the interpretation of the relevant provisions, offering a consistent approach in line with the legislative intent.
(B) The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ("Evidence Act"), unless exempted, precedes the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence.
(C) In P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer, the court held that Section 65B is a "complete code" for electronic evidence.
(D) In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, reported in AIR 2005 SC 3820, the Hon'ble Supreme Court had held that courts could admit electronic records such as printouts and compact discs (CDs) as prima facie evidence without authentication.
Answer: (D)
Q11. Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Such interested person may file objections within 6 months of the notice having been issued.
(B) All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector.
(C) A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all persons interested.
(D) The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website.
Answer: (B)
Q12. In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment-debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim:
(A) Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings.
(B) Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit.
(C) Shall be adjudicated by the executing court.
(D) Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree.
Answer: (C)
Q13. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957:
Statement I: In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published.
Statement II: For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public.
(A) Both Statements I and II are true.
(B) Both Statements I and II are false.
(C) Only Statement II is true.
(D) Only Statement I is true.
Answer: (A)
Q14. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry?
(A) Not less than ten years
(B) Not less than three years
(C) Not less than seven years
(D) Not less than five years
Answer: (D)
Q15. Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India?
(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241
(B) PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235
(C) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1996) 6 SCC 756
(D) Glaxo Laboratories v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, Meerut, (1984) 1 SCC 1
Answer: (B)
Q16. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may:
(A) Return the plaint for fresh presentation.
(B) Dismiss the suit.
(C) Stay the proceedings until service is effected.
(D) Proceed to decide the suit on merits.
Answer: (B)
Q17. Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in:
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The State Legislatures
(D) The President of India
Answer: (B)
Q18. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law.
Statement II: Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile.
(A) Only Statement II is true.
(B) Both Statements I and II are false.
(C) Both Statements I and II are true.
(D) Only Statement I is true.
Answer: (A)
Q19. In Roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as:
(A) Jus Civile
(B) Lex Regia
(C) Jus Naturale
(D) Jus Gentium
Answer: (C)
Q20. Directives: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
Reason (R): The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State.
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (D)
Q21. In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that "the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant's freedom"?
(A) Attorney General for Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983) 2 AC 629
(B) Budgaycay v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (1987) AC 514
(C) Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284
(D) Attorney General for New South Wales v. Trethowan (1932) AC 526
Answer: (C)
Q22. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law.
II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court.
III. Withdrawal of a suit without permission of the court to institute a fresh suit bars a subsequent suit on the same cause of action.
IV. The court must grant permission whenever request is made.
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) I, II and III
(C) I, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV
Answer: (B)
Q23. Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts?
(A) A boy kicked another from across the aisle in the classroom. It turned out the victim had an unknown microbial condition that was irritated, and resulted in him entirely losing the use of his leg.
(B) Nervous shock cases are also consistent with this principle. The rule is that if injury from nervous shock is reasonably foreseeable to an ordinarily strong-nerved person situated in the position of the claimant, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the shock.
(C) A man had a heart attack and died after being bruised in the chest during a rear-end car accident.
(D) 'A' underwent an appendectomy in a local hospital. Despite the surgery going as planned, she continued to experience abdominal pain. It was later discovered that a needle had been left inside her abdomen, leading to further surgeries and prolonged suffering.
Answer: (D)
Q24. Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer-in-charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within:
(A) 14 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 24 hours
Answer: (A)
Q25. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a 'Bailable Offence'?
(A) Section 2(h)
(B) Section 2(x)
(C) Section 2(c)
(D) Section 2(a)
Answer: (D)
Q26. A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, "The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert to my heirs. Further, the income from the property shall accumulate for 50 years before being used for expansion of the library."
Which of the following statements is most accurate in law?
(A) The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty and violates public policy.
(B) The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity and the condition of accumulation beyond permissible limits.
(C) The transfer is valid in its entirety, including the accumulation clause, because transfers for public purposes are fully exempt from all perpetuity-related restrictions.
(D) The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public benefit, but the accumulation clause is void to the extent it exceeds statutory limits.
Answer: (D)
Q27. A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month's imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true?
(A) The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session.
(B) An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed.
(C) The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court.
(D) No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance.
Answer: (A)
Q28. Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement (ingredient) to constitute the offence of 'Abduction'?
(A) Compelling or inducing a person to move from one place to another.
(B) The classification of the act as a "continuing offence".
(C) The employment of physical force or the use of deceitful means.
(D) The person abducted must be a minor.
Answer: (D)
Q29. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case?
(A) National Company Law Tribunal
(B) Arbitral Tribunal
(C) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
(D) National Green Tribunal
Answer: (B)
Q30. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe?
(A) Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded.
(B) Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days).
(C) Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order.
(D) Within a strict period of 15 days.
Answer: (B)
Q31. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves?
(A) Section 125
(B) Section 320
(C) Section 144
(D) Section 107
Answer: (A)
Q32. Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief:
(A) Only through review before the same court.
(B) Only by filing a separate suit.
(C) By applying for setting aside the ex parte decree.
(D) Only through an appeal against decree.
Answer: (C)
Q33. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit is instituted against a person who is subsequently found to have been wrongly impleaded as a defendant, the court may:
(A) Dismiss the suit as not maintainable.
(B) Permit substitution or addition of the proper defendant.
(C) Direct the plaintiff to institute a fresh suit.
(D) Return the plaint on the ground of mis-joinder of parties.
Answer: (B)
Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Statement I: A dispute arises regarding jurisdiction of the arbitral tribunal. Statement II: The arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction.
Statement II: A plea that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction shall be raised not later than the submission of the statement of defence, unless the arbitral tribunal permits a later plea.
(A) Only Statement I is true.
(B) Both Statements I and II are true.
(C) Only Statement II is true.
(D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true.
Answer: (B)
Q35. According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to:
(A) Jurisdiction of the civil court alone.
(B) Place where the contract was executed.
(C) Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties.
(D) Location of subject matter of dispute.
Answer: (C)
Q36. What is the year did the mandatory pre-fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
(A) 2023
(B) 2018
(C) 2024
(D) 2019
Answer: (D)
Q37. According to Section 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, compensation is received by an individual on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land which had been used for agricultural purposes by him prior to acquisition. What is the correct legal position?
(A) It is always taxable under the Act.
(B) It is exempt, subject to fulfilment of prescribed conditions.
(C) It is taxable only if it exceeds a prescribed limit.
(D) It is taxable as business income.
Answer: (A)
Q38. "The rules of natural justice were not confined to the narrow precincts of the prevailing definition of quasi-judicial functions." This principle was laid down in which case?
(A) Conway v. Rimmer (1968) A.C. 910
(B) Ridge v. Baldwin (1964) A.C. 40
(C) Maradana Mosque Trustees v. Mahmud (1967) (1) A.C. 13
(D) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AIR 1970 SC 150
Answer: (B)
Q39. Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance. The opinion rendered by the Court in such a reference is generally regarded as:
(A) Enforceable through contempt jurisdiction
(B) A binding precedent under Article 141
(C) Advisory in nature and not strictly binding
(D) Equivalent to a decree of the Court
Answer: (C)
Q40. On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) January 1, 2024
(B) July 1, 2024
(C) August 15, 2023
(D) December 25, 2023
Answer: (B)
Q41. Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of 'Defamation'?
(A) Rigorous imprisonment for 5 years
(B) Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service
(C) Only an apology in open court
(D) Only a fine
Answer: (B)
Q42. "Administrative law is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action." This definition was given by:
(A) H.W.R. Wade
(B) A.V. Dicey
(C) K.C. Davis
(D) Ivor Jennings
Answer: (C)
Q43. Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
(A) Solitary confinement
(B) Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole
(C) Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property
(D) Community Service
Answer: (D)
Q44. Directives: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An ex parte decree may be set aside if the defendant satisfies the court that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Reason (R): Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court must be satisfied that the summons was not duly served or that the defendant was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called for hearing.
Mark your answer as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (A)
Q45. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, stipulates that a police officer must produce a person arrested without a warrant before a Magistrate within a maximum period of 24 hours?
(A) Section 51
(B) Section 57
(C) Section 91
(D) Section 164
Answer: (B)
Q46. Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform for Yash Aditya Music Company and begins performing for BR Chopra & Company. Yash Aditya Music Company files a suit seeking an injunction restraining Ajeet Singh from performing for BR Chopra & Company. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
(A) The court must compel Ajeet Singh to sing for Yash Aditya Music Company.
(B) Only damages can be granted.
(C) The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant.
(D) The injunction must be refused because contracts of personal service cannot be enforced.
Answer: (C)
Q47. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India forms the primary legislative basis for the Parliament enacting the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
(A) Article 253
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 253
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q48. The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in cases of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation under Section 7?
(A) When the affected party chooses to initiate criminal proceedings.
(B) When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised access.
(C) When the damage to computer resources exceeds a prescribed monetary limit.
(D) When access to a computer system is without permission, irrespective of intent.
Answer: (B)
Q49. Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify authenticity of electronic evidence?
(A) Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, with the certificate adhering to the format prescribed in the Adhiniyam's Schedule.
(B) The form specified in the Schedule requires that electronic evidence be accompanied by a "hash value".
(C) Qualification of an expert.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C)
Q50. Directives: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust. The dispute originated when he was terminated due to repeated absence from duty. The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an "industry" under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and therefore the worker was not a workman, making Section 25-F inapplicable.
Reason (R): The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (B)
