Practice the AIBE 15 (2021) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. Indemnity contract is defined under
(A) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(B) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
(C) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
(D) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act
Answer: A
Q2. Peek v. Gurney is a famous case related to
(A) Coercion
(B) Fraud
(C) Mistake of fact
(D) Mistake of law
Answer: B
Q3. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of 'Transformative Constitutionalism' in the case of
(A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018
(B) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation, 2010
(C) Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi, 2009
(D) Aruna Roy v. Union of India, 2002
Answer: A
Q4. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by
(A) Any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India
(B) Any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
(C) Any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q5. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
(A) A method of agriculture or horticulture
(B) Presentation of information
(C) Topography of integrated circuits
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q6. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre-existing
(A) GATT
(B) BIRPI
(C) TRPM
(D) PCT
Answer: B
Q7. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ
(A) For setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J & K
(B) For setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J & K
(C) For setting aside orders of the Government by which J & K was constituted as a UT
(D) For setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
Answer: A
Q8. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Article 19(1)(a) read with Article 19(2) in the case of
(A) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(B) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(C) Govinda v. State of M.P.
(D) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Answer: D
Q9. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) Nine
Answer: C
Q10. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India 1986 Shriram Food and Fertilizers case relates to
(A) Oleum Gas leak
(B) Ganga water cleaning
(C) Child labour
(D) Bonded labour
Answer: A
Q11. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India relates to
(A) Likelihood of Bias
(B) Delegated Legislation
(C) Administrative Discretion
(D) Notice
Answer: A
Q12. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of
(A) Doctrine of Ultravires
(B) Malafides
(C) Exclusion of Judicial Review
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q13. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 13
Answer: A
Q14. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to
(A) Void marriages
(B) Voidable marriages
(C) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
(D) Conditions of Hindu marriage
Answer: D
Q15. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncle's son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Void
(D) Valid only in north India
Answer: C
Q16. The principle of Res judicata is dealt under Section...... of CPC
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Answer: C
Q17. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with
(A) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals
(B) Presumption as to foreign judgments
(C) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
(D) Presumption as to judgments of High Court
Answer: B
Q18. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A
(A) Only in Delhi
(B) Only in Kolkata
(C) In both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
(D) Either in Kolkata or in Delhi
Answer: D
Q19. Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confession and statements?
(A) Section 162
(B) Section 164
(C) Section 163A
(D) Section 165
Answer: B
Q20. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section
(A) 83
(B) 82
(C) 85
(D) 86
Answer: A
Q21. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section ............... of Cr.P.C.
(A) 201
(B) 204
(C) 205
(D) 200
Answer: C
Q22. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of
(A) Unlawful Assembly
(B) Arrest without warrant
(C) Search and seizures
(D) Plea bargaining
Answer: D
Q23. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
(A) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 110 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q24. Section 105(I) of Cr. P. C. deals
(A) Forfeiture of property in certain cases
(B) Notice of forfeiture or property
(C) Management of properties seized or forfeited
(D) Identifying unlawfully acquired property
Answer: A
Q25. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation—is dealt under
(A) Section 178 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 469 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 478 of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 168 of Cr.P.C.
Answer: D
Q26. "Decree-holder" means
(A) Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(B) Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
(C) Any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(D) Any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Answer: A
Q27. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under
(A) Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code
Answer: A
Q28. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is passing by. If there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is:
(A) An offence of murder
(B) An offence of culpable homicide
(C) Not an offence
(D) An offence of causing grievous hurt
Answer: C
Q29. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search—A has committed an offence under:
(A) Section 256 of IPC
(B) Section 192 of IPC
(C) Section 195A of IPC
(D) Section 201 of IPC
Answer: B
Q30. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as:
(A) A contract of Uberrimae fidei
(B) Implied Agency
(C) Quantum meruit
(D) De novo contract
Answer: C
Q31. Agreement is:
(A) A promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
(B) Enforceable by law
(C) Enforceable contract
(D) Unenforceable by law
Answer: A
Q32. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression "land" includes:
(A) Benefits to arise out of land
(B) Things attached to the earth
(C) Things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q33. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under:
(A) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act
(B) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
(C) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
(D) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act
Answer: C
Q34. X, Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/-. Subsequently X, Y become untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay?
(A) A can, under Section 43 para 1/A
(B) A can under Section 49 para 1/A
(C) A cannot and will have to wait till X, Y become traceable
(D) Z can be compelled only for one third
Answer: A
Q35. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as:
(A) Agency
(B) Bailment
(C) Guarantee
(D) Contingency
Answer: B
Q36. Section 14A inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, relates to:
(A) Power of the Courts to engage experts
(B) Establishment of Special Court
(C) Expeditious disposal of case
(D) Specific performance with regard to contracts
Answer: A
Q37. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue?
(A) Queen Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar v. Emperor
(C) Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q38. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs is an offence under:
(A) Section 295
(B) Section 295A
(C) Section 265A
(D) Section 276
Answer: B
Q39. Under Section 29 of Cr. P.C., The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except:
(A) A sentence of death
(B) Imprisonment for life
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q40. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil Procedure is dealt under:
(A) Section 21A
(B) Section 15
(C) Section 21-B
(D) Section 83
Answer: D
Q41. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 as per Order XXI, Rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor—is known as:
(A) IT Order
(B) Garnishee Order
(C) Decree Holder Order
(D) Bank Order
Answer: B
Q42. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with:
(A) Interpleader suit
(B) Interlocutory Order
(C) Restitution Order
(D) Attachment Order
Answer: A
Q43. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission was constituted in the year:
(A) 1988
(B) 1998
(C) 1999
(D) 1997
Answer: A
Q44. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
(A) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(B) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(C) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(D) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
Answer: D
Q45. "Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability"—Justice Krishna Iyer. Name of the case:
(A) Bangalore Cement Ltd. v. Their workmen
(B) Associated Cement Ltd. v. Their workmen
(C) Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
(D) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd. v. Their workmen
Answer: C
Q46. A workman aggrieved by the order of...............may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government:
(A) Dismissal, discharge and retrenchment
(B) Dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
(C) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
(D) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively
Answer: B
Q47. Vis major means:
(A) Act of God
(B) Act of Individual
(C) Act of other party
(D) Act of plaintiff
Answer: A
Q48. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means:
(A) An act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(B) An act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(C) An act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q49. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the commission of a wrongful act, are known as:
(A) Abettors
(B) Joint tortfeasors
(C) Tort holders
(D) Tort holders in common
Answer: B
Q50. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them—under which section of the Indian Evidence Act:
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 3
(D) Section 5
Answer: B
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