Practice the AIBE 15 (2021) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with:
(A) Documentary Evidence
(B) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
(C) Burden of proof as to ownership
(D) Proof of guilt
Answer: C
Q52. Section 113(A) of the Evidence Act deals with:
(A) Presumption as to abetment of murder
(B) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
(C) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
(D) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
Answer: D
Q53. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of:
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)
(B) Common Cause v. Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1
(C) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, (1996)
(D) Dr. Chenna Jagadeeswar v. State of A.P.
Answer: B
Q54. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about:
(A) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
(B) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
(C) Doctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
(D) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants
Answer: D
Q55. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from:
(A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 13
(D) Article 14
Answer: A
Q56. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression 'liberty' is followed by the words:
(A) Of status and opportunity
(B) Of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
(C) Assuring the dignity of individual
(D) Justice, social, economic and political
Answer: B
Q57. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of:
(A) 7 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 11 years
(D) 14 years
Answer: A
Q58. "From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1) Cr.P.C.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence..... Investigations, under the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195 Cr.P.C."—This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:
(A) Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu
(B) Raj Singh v. State, [(1998)]
(C) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
Answer: B
Q59. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act:
(A) The facts that A asked C to lend him money
(B) D said to C in A's presence and hearing—"I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees."
(C) A went away without making any answer
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q60. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under:
(A) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
(C) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
(D) Section 29 of the Evidence Act
Answer: C
Q61. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or on finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. This is under:
(A) Section 42 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 50
(D) Section 55
Answer: B
Q62. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. Which Section of the Evidence is applicable?
(A) Section 92
(B) Section 124
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 101
Answer: C
Q63. The Arbitration Act, 1996 repeals:
(A) The Arbitration Act, 1940
(B) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
(C) The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q64. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under..........of the Constitution:
(A) Article 323B
(B) Article 323A
(C) Article 233
(D) Article 323
Answer: B
Q65. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under:
(A) Section 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
(B) Section 7(1)(b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
(C) Section 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
(D) Section 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961
Answer: B
Q66. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the Bar Council of India has power to make rules:
(A) Qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
(B) The class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
(C) The standards of legal education to be observed by Universities in India and the inspection of Universities for that purpose
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q67. India, that is Bharat, shall be a:
(A) Federation of States
(B) Quasi federal
(C) Union of States
(D) Unitary State of a special type
Answer: C
Q68. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the Court held that:
(A) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(B) In escape of dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(C) In escape of toxic gas, the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(D) A company or a corporation is not a State and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people.
Answer: A
Q69. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, 'environmental pollutant' means:
(A) Any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.
(B) Any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.
(C) Any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.
(D) Any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment.
Answer: C
Q70. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its jurisdiction with reference to:
(A) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(B) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
(C) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(D) Both A and B
Answer: D
Q71. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication is known as:
(A) Pharming
(B) Smishing
(C) Phishing
(D) Diddling
Answer: C
Q72. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of:
(A) 14 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: B
Q73. R.V. Dudley and Stephen stands for the principle that:
(A) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
(B) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable.
(C) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a defence against murder.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: A
Q74. The utility of Public Interest Litigation:
(A) Liberalised locus standi
(B) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
(C) Procedural requirements are liberalized
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q75. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the State of Bihar in promulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The Court held that the petitioner as a member of public has 'sufficient interest' to maintain a petition under Article 32—This relates to the case of:
(A) Parmand Katara v. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 2039
(B) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
(C) Neeraja Chaudhary v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 1984 SC 1099
(D) Chameli Singh v. State of U.P., AIR 1996 SC 1051
Answer: B
Q76. "Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law..." Justice Bhagwati made this observation in:
(A) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Pandey v. State of West Bengal
(C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(D) Janata Dal v. H.S. Chowdhary
Answer: C
Q77. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt under:
(A) Section 33 of C.P.C.
(B) Section 35A of C.P.C.
(C) Section 30 of C.P.C.
(D) Section 35 of C.P.C.
Answer: B
Q78. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant?
(A) Order 5 Rule 19A
(B) Order 5 Rule 19
(C) Order 5 Rule 20
(D) Order 5 Rule 21
Answer: (C)
Q79. Laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates is included in the functions of the Bar Council of India under which section of the Advocates Act?
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 8
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 6
Answer: (A)
Q80. According to Justice 'Abbot Parry', what are the "Seven Lamps of Advocacy"?
(A) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship
(B) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship
(C) (i) Influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship
(D) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Seriousness (v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship
Answer: (B)
Q81. Minimum number of Directors in a Public Company:
(A) 3
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 5
Answer: (A)
Q82. An associate company, in relation to another company, means:
(A) A company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.
(B) A company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.
(C) A company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company.
(D) A company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.
Answer: (B)
Q83. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in:
(A) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(B) M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra
(C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(D) Gangan Harsh Sharma v. The State of Maharashtra
Answer: (C)
Q84. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of the Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of:
(A) The Workmen v. Greaves Cotton and Co. Ltd. and others
(B) John Joseph Khokar v. Bhadange B.S. and others
(C) A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa
(D) Dinesh Sharma and Others v. State of Bihar
Answer: (C)
Q85. According to the Factories Act, "child" means:
(A) A person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age.
(B) A person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age.
(C) A person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age.
(D) A person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age.
Answer: (A)
Q86. According to the Income Tax Act, "zero coupon bond" means a bond:
(A) Issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after 1st June, 2005.
(B) In respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank.
(C) Which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify in this behalf.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (D)
Q87. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by:
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2016
(C) The Constitution (Eighty Fourth Amendment) Act, 2016
(D) The Constitution (Seventy Seventh Amendment) Act, 2016
Answer: (A)
Q88. Suits by indigent persons are dealt under:
(A) Order 44 of C.P.C.
(B) Order 33 of C.P.C.
(C) Order 55 of C.P.C.
(D) Order 22 of C.P.C.
Answer: (B)
Q89. Res gestae, relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under:
(A) Section 6 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
(C) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
(D) Section 20 of the Evidence Act
Answer: (A)
Q90. The definition of 'money' under GST law does not include:
(A) Letter of Credit
(B) Currency held for numismatic value
(C) Pay order
(D) Traveller cheque
Answer: (B)
Q91. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by:
(A) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(B) Respective Governors of the States
(C) The President
(D) A collective body of Union and States
Answer: (C)
Q92. The definition of Contract is defined under:
(A) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act
(B) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act
(C) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act
(D) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act
Answer: (B)
Q93. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA), 2005 provides for women:
(A) Coparcenary rights at par with men
(B) Inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers
(C) Inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q94. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for:
(A) Custody of the children
(B) Permanent alimony and maintenance
(C) Maintenance pendente lite
(D) Division of matrimonial property
Answer: (B)
Q95. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under:
(A) Section 18(2)(f) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(B) Section 18(2)(d) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(C) Section 18(2)(a) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(D) Section 18(2)(g) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Answer: (C)
Q96. Requisites of a valid adoption—no adoption shall be valid unless— (i) the person adopting has the capacity and also the right to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter—are contained under:
(A) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(B) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(C) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(D) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Answer: (A)
Q97. According to the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be:
(A) Void
(B) Compoundable
(C) Cognizable
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q98. The UNCITRAL Model of Law Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act, held in the case of:
(A) Union of India v. East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.
(B) Union of India v. M.C. Mehta
(C) Tata Press Ltd. v. Union of India
(D) Union of India v. Indian Charge Chrome Ltd.
Answer: (A)
Q99. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:
(A) A document signed by the parties
(B) An exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement
(C) An exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q100. Waiver of right to object deviation from arbitration agreement is mentioned under ________ of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act:
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 22
Answer: (B)
