Practice the AIBE 12 (2018) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in:
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1967
(D) 1975
Answer: B
Q2. A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts:
(A) Section 107 of IPC
(B) Section 120(B) of IPC
(C) Section 114 of IPC
(D) Section 144 of IPC
Answer: A
Q3. The landmark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is:
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) MC Mehta v. Union of India
(D) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: D
Q4. Examination in Chief is conducted by the:
(A) Chief Examiner of the court
(B) A lawyer appointed by the accused
(C) A lawyer appointed by the Government
(D) Presiding Judge in the court
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q5. The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of:
(A) The Stockholm Conference
(B) The Nairobi Conference
(C) The Vienna Conference
(D) The Rio De Janeiro Conference
Answer: D
Q6. Who is a protected workman:
(A) Workman given police protection during labour strike
(B) Workman protected by insurance coverage
(C) Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
(D) Workman protected from being arrested by a court order
Answer: C
Q7. A trade mark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of:
(A) A word
(B) A device
(C) A label
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q8. The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of:
(A) Legal Service Corporation Act, 1974
(B) Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1949
(C) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
(D) None
Answer: C
Q9. Shah Bano case was related to:
(A) Dowry demand
(B) Harassment at work place
(C) Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
(D) Triple divorce of Muslim Women
Answer: C
Q10. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court:
(A) Any public spirited person
(B) NGO or Association with public spirit
(C) Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q11. Doctrine of 'Pleasure' applies to:
(A) Legislature
(B) Civil Servants
(C) Judges
(D) Cabinet Ministers
Answer: B
Q12. Section 24A of Advocates Act, 1961 provides the:
(A) Appointment of Attorney General
(B) Regular attendance at Law College
(C) Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
(D) Election to State Bar Council
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q13. Articles of a company can be altered by:
(A) The directors of the company
(B) The official of the company
(C) Share holders by passing an ordinary resolution
(D) Share holders by passing a special resolution
Answer: D
Q14. Article 361 provides:
(A) Authority to Union Government to dismiss the State Governments
(B) Authority to the State Governments to pass legislation
(C) Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in courts
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q15. Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with:
(A) Section 298 of IPC
(B) Section 296 of IPC
(C) Section 297 of IPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q16. Under Section 320(1), CrPC for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is:
(A) 503
(B) 504
(C) 505
(D) 506
Answer: D
Q17. Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism:
(A) Bar Council of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Lok Adalat
Answer: D
Q18. Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor:
(A) Father
(B) Brother
(C) The executor appointed by father
(D) Grand father
Answer: B
Q19. Who is garnishee:
(A) A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
(B) A borrower arrested for defaulting
(C) A person who cannot repay a bank loan
(D) A person who mortgaged his farm land
Answer: A
Q20. Under Section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to court:
(A) The Tahsildar
(B) The Sub Collector
(C) The Deputy Collector
(D) The Collector
Answer: D
Q21. For Specific Performance of a contract suit is to be instituted in:
(A) 3 years
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
Answer: A
Q22. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under:
(A) Wealth Tax
(B) GST
(C) Income Tax Act, 1961
(D) Finance Act, 1992
Answer: C
Q23. A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is:
(A) Irregular
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these
Answer: A
Q24. Section 10 of the CPC provides for:
(A) Stay of the suit
(B) Summoning witness
(C) Examination of witness
(D) Sentencing the judgment
Answer: A
Q25. Who is prevented from being testified u/s 118 of Indian Evidence Act:
(A) A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
(B) Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the question
(C) A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the question
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q26. Supreme Court decided in SR Bommai v. Union of India:
(A) Relating to the President Rule in state
(B) Relating to the illegal detention
(C) Relating to the right to clean environment
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q27. Recovery of specific immovable property is defined:
(A) Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act
(B) Section 120 (B) of IPC
(C) Under Section 10 of Sale of Goods Act
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q28. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act deals with:
(A) Revision petition in division bench of High Court
(B) Appeal in Supreme Court
(C) Return of Wealth Tax
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q29. The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, give immediate ______ of any correction made in the award to all the persons interested:
(A) Approval
(B) Stay
(C) Announcement
(D) Notice
Answer: D
Q30. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected:
(A) Under Section 151 of CPC
(B) Under Section 152 of CPC
(C) Under Section 153 of CPC
(D) Under Section 153A of CPC
Answer: B
Q31. Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is:
(A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Challengeable
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q32. Supreme Court has decided in Kesavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala, that:
(A) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution
(B) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
(C) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q33. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 41
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 37
Answer: B
Q34. “A” is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained:
(A) Section 80 of IPC
(B) Section 84 of IPC
(C) Section 81 of IPC
(D) Section 85 of IPC
Answer: A
Q35. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. Union of India (1995) 1 SCC 14. In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court:
(A) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
(B) Abolition of child labour
(C) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
(D) Poor salary of maid servants
Q35. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. Union of India (1995) 1 SCC 14. In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court:
(A) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
(B) Abolition of child labour
(C) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
(D) Poor salary of maid servants
Answer: A
Q36. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature:
(A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter IX
(D) Chapter IX and X
Answer: A
Q37. The FIR gives information of:
(A) Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
(B) Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a Criminal case
(C) The commission of a cognizable crime
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q38. Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under Section:
(A) Section 2(1)(b)
(B) Section 20
(C) Section 21
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q39. Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader suits in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Order 12, Rule 1
(B) Order 17, Rule 10
(C) Order 33, Rule 18
(D) Order 35, Rule 1
Answer: D
Q40. Which is not the Private Right:
(A) Rights of property
(B) Right of freedom
(C) Rights to Education
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q41. Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C.?
(A) It is milder form of process
(B) It is for appearance
(C) It is for producing documents or thing
(D) All of them
Answer: D
Q42. The Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab is a leading case on:
(A) Dying Declaration
(B) Admission
(C) Confession
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q43. What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act:
(A) Recovery of stolen property
(B) Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
(C) Recovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q44. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes:
(A) Process of Conciliation
(B) Process of Arbitration
(C) Enforcement of Foreign Awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q45. Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article:
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 48-A
(D) 50
Answer: D
Q46. In-camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under Section:
(A) 302 IPC
(B) 307 IPC
(C) 376 IPC
(D) 498-A IPC
Answer: C
Q47. The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act. In which case the order was passed:
(A) Handa v. Handa (AIR 1955)
(B) Dr. Mary v. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
(C) Peter v. Anglina (AIR 1992)
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q48. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by:
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 33
(C) Section 35
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q49. Which is a case of public interest:
(A) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India AIR 1980
(C) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand AIR 1980
(D) All the above
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q50. Under Section 239 Cr.P.C., the Magistrate can:
(A) Frame charges against the accused person
(B) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless
(C) Open trial for evidence
(D) Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
Answer: B
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