Practice the AIBE 19 (2024) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
(1) Occupier of factory
(2) Contractor
(3) Manager of the factory
(4) Managing director of the factory
(A) (1), (3) and (4)
(B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (4)
Answer: (C)
Q52. Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020?
(1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
(A) (3) and (4)
(B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (3)
Answer: (B)
Q53. ________ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
(A) Environmental Tribunals
(B) Labour Courts
(C) National Tribunal
(D) Industrial Tribunals
Answer: (A)
Q54. XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 04 workers without providing any compensation. The termination was because of the misconduct on the part of the workers. The company issued a show cause notice and the disciplinary enquiry was also conducted against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee the services of these employees were terminated. The workers claimed the retrenchment compensation which was rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection the workers have filed a complaint in Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) The termination amounts to lay-off, hence compensation will be awarded.
(B) The termination amounts to retrenchment, hence compensation will be awarded.
(C) The termination violated the provisions under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, hence compensation will be awarded.
(D) The termination does not amount to retrenchment, hence no compensation is payable.
Answer: (D)
Q55. Malti, a small business owner, runs an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers' personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident. On the basis of the above problem select the correct option.
(A) It is punishable only under the criminal laws.
(B) It is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the customers can also claim the compensation under certain circumstances.
(C) The customers do not have any legal remedy under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
(D) It is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, but leave the premises in occupation of Mr. A.
Answer: (B & D)
Q56. Mr. B told Mr. A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr. A. When Mr. A refused then Mr. B collected some of his workmen who mustered around Mr. A. They tucked up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff's neck, but they did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr. A can file the case?
(A) Assault
(B) Battery
(C) Hurt
(D) False Imprisonment
Answer: (A)
Q57. Ms. J knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr. T was under the influence of alcohol. Consequently, car met with an accident and Ms. J got injuries and she has filed the case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr. T?
(A) Act of God
(B) Inevitable Accident
(C) Act of Necessity
(D) Volenti non-fit injuria
Answer: (D)
Q58. Mr. K is owner of a building containing huge number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr. Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which erected after the occupation by Mr. K. Owing to noise and smoke of the mill several rooms remain vacated that results into loss for Mr. K. Examine relevant tort for the case.
(A) Trespass of land
(B) Nuisance
(C) Negligence
(D) Damnum-sine-injuria
Answer: (B)
Q59. There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the government and another was a private bus. Wherein private bus was coming from wrong side and government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing down his bus after seeing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.
(A) Government bus owner's negligence.
(B) Inevitable accident.
(C) Contributory negligence.
(D) Private bus owner's negligence.
Answer: (C)
Q60. The term "Income" is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under ________.
(A) Section 2(40)
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 10E
(D) Section 2(24)
Answer: (D)
Q61. Mr. X deposits Rs. 65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under Section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961, on the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) Mr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
(B) No tax deduction can be availed under Section 80C.
(C) It is an unlawful act to treat a personal expenditure.
(D) Mr. X is guilty of tax evasion/tax avoidance.
Answer: (A)
Q62. Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Agricultural income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961.
Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural income in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeds Basic Exemption limit and Agricultural Income exceeds Rs. 5,000/- is determined by Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.
(A) Only Statement 1 is true.
(B) Only Statement 2 is true.
(C) Both the Statements are correct.
(D) Both the Statements are incorrect.
Answer: (C)
Q63. Ms. J, a banker refuses to honour cheque of Ms. F. Though she was having sufficient balance yet it doesn't suffer any loss to Ms. F. Ms. F can file the case under which scenario?
(A) Injuria-sine-damnum
(B) Damnum-sine-injuria
(C) Res-ipsa-loquitur
(D) Volenti-non-fit-injuria
Answer: (A)
Q64. An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under ________.
(A) Section 2(e)
(B) Section 2(f)
(C) Section 2(g)
(D) Section 2(d)
Answer: (C)
Q65. The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections ________.
(A) 142-144
(B) 143-147
(C) 140-143
(D) 142-146
Answer: (A)
Q66. "A", a real estate developer, entered into a contract with "B", owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that "A" would pay Rs. 50 lakhs in advance and the remaining Rs. 1 crore within six months. "B" agreed to transfer the title to the land. However, after receiving the advance payment, "B" refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. "A" demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but "B" denied his claim. "A" has to file a suit in a court of law. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) "A" may file a suit in the special court constituted under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
(B) "A" may file a suit in the civil court having the powers under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
(C) No suit can be brought against "A" as there is no breach of contract.
(D) "A" may file a suit in the criminal court having the powers under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Answer: (B)
Q67. "A" transfers a piece of land to "B" on the condition that "B" shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, "B" has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) It amounts to Conditional Limitations on Transfer of Property.
(B) It amounts to Subsequent Transfer of Property.
(C) It amounts to conditions precedent in the Transfer of Property.
(D) It amounts to conditional Transfer of Property.
Answer: (A)
Q68. Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of Rs. 50,000 to his supplier, Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark "Insufficient Funds". On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within one month for the dishonour of the cheque.
(B) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within five months for the dishonour of the cheque.
(C) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within two months for the dishonour of the cheque.
(D) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within three months for the dishonour of the cheque.
Answer: (A)
Q69. Rent-Free Accommodation provided by an employer to employee is ________.
(A) Perquisite as per Section 16(2) of the Income Tax Act.
(B) Allowance under Section 10(13A) of the Income Tax Act.
(C) Allowance under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act.
(D) Perquisite as per Section 17(2) of the Income Tax Act.
Answer: (D)
Q70. The recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced ________.
(A) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(B) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(C) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(D) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
Answer: (C)
Q71. Which section of Law of Contract defines, "A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards"?
(A) Section 4
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 5
Answer: (D)
Q72. According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013 governments can acquire land for:
(i) Strategic purpose.
(ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects.
(iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.
(A) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(D) (i) & (ii)
Answer: (C)
Q73. Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
(A) Land Acquisition Act, 1862
(B) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(C) Land Acquisition Act, 1874
(D) Land Acquisition Act, 1956
Answer: (B)
Q74. Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called "FitLife" that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app's name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app's source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called "FitLyfe", with a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
(A) No, because the competing app has a different name and logo.
(B) Yes, but only if the competitor is a small business.
(C) No, trademark infringement can only occur if there is identical copying.
(D) Yes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.
Answer: (D)
Q75. What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
(A) 60 years from the date of publication.
(B) Lifetime of the author plus 60 years.
(C) 10 years from the date of first sale.
(D) 50 years from the creation of the work.
Answer: (B)
Q76. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to ________.
(A) Cancellation of instruments
(B) Declaratory decrees
(C) Perpetual injunction
(D) Rescission of contracts
Answer: (A)
Q77. In which case did the Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
(A) Kameshwar Singh v. State of Bihar
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Basheshar Nath v. I.T. Commissioner
(D) Gopal v. State of Madras
Answer: (C)
Q78. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
(A) 91st
(B) 77th
(C) 85th
(D) 81st
Answer: (D)
Q79. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?
(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the House of the People.
(iii) It also adds Article 334A which states that the said amendment will commence after the first census has been taken after the commencement of the said Act.
(iv) The above stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from such commencement.
(A) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) All of these
(D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
Q80. The Parliament enacts the "Fair Housing Act, 2024", which includes the following provisions:
(1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender.
(2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of Rs. 10,000 for discrimination.
(3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years.
A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law. Which principle did the court apply in this decision?
(A) Doctrine of Severability
(B) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(C) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
(D) Doctrine of Eclipse
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
Q81. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ________.
(A) Committee on Public Undertakings
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Governor
Answer: (D)
Q82. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
(A) Article 111
(B) Article 129
(C) Article 135
(D) Article 119
Answer: (B)
Q83. In which case was a registered society held to be an "authority" for the purpose of Article 12?
(A) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib
(B) Sukhdev v. Bhagatram
(C) R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority
(D) Som Prakash Rekhi v. Union of India
Answer: (A)
Q84. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
(A) 100
(B) 101
(C) 102
(D) 99
Answer: (B)
Q85. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Only Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Either House of Parliament
Answer: (D)
Q86. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be "Criminal Force" when:
(A) When intentionally uses force only.
(B) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.
(C) When it is used in self-defence.
(D) When it is used unintentionally.
Answer: (B)
Q87. According to Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
(A) Five hundred rupees
(B) Three hundred rupees
(C) One thousand rupees
(D) One hundred rupees
Answer: (B)
Q88. According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death of or any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed?
(1) Robbery
(2) House breaking after sunset
(3) Theft, mischief or house trespass
(A) (1) and (3) both
(B) (1) and (2) both
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) (1) only
Answer: (B)
Q89. Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil's arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offences has Rajesh committed?
(A) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
(B) Voluntarily causing hurt under Section 324 of IPC
(C) Attempt to commit culpable homicide under Section 308 of IPC
(D) Simple hurt under Section 323 of IPC
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
Q90. Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Which of the following offences has Amit committed?
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC
(B) Causing death by negligence under Section 304A of IPC
(C) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
(D) Murder under Section 302 of IPC
Answer: (A)
Q91. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
(A) 105
(B) 108
(C) 102
(D) 107
Answer: (A)
Q92. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
(A) 65
(B) 63
(C) 72
(D) 64
Answer: (A)
Q93. A new offence of 'snatching' has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines 'Snatching' as an offence?
(A) 303
(B) 305
(C) 304
(D) 308
Answer: (C)
Q94. Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:
Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as a result of which the following is stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following:
The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when—
(1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel.
(2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested.
(3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away.
(4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances.
Which of the above is/are the correct statement?
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) Only (4)
(C) Only (2)
(D) (1) and (3)
Answer: (A)
Q95. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offence irrespective of area where the offence is committed. This FIR is known as ________.
(A) Zero FIR
(B) False FIR
(C) Counter FIR
(D) NCR
Answer: (A)
Q96. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offences punishable with imprisonment for at least ________ years.
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 2
Answer: (B)
Q97. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
(A) 349
(B) 356
(C) 366
(D) 251
Answer: (B)
Q98. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
(A) 330
(B) 430
(C) 530
(D) 532
Answer: (C)
Q99. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) 101
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 531
Answer: (D)
Q100. Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram. Which of the following offences under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
(A) House trespass with intent to commit theft
(B) Attempt to commit robbery
(C) Burglary
(D) Attempt to commit theft
Answer: (A)
