Practice the AIBE 19 (2024) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 45
(D) 25
Answer: (B)
Q2. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
(A) 76
(B) 84
(C) 86
(D) 74
Answer: (C)
Q3. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
(A) 246
(B) 346
(C) 356
(D) 146
Answer: (B)
Q4. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
(A) The High Court or the Supreme Court.
(B) The Civil Judge in District Court B.
(C) A committee of local advocates.
(D) The District Court A where the suit is currently pending.
Answer: (A)
Q5. Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
(A) Order 7, Rule 11—Rejection of Plaint
(B) Order 5—Service of Summons
(C) Order 6, Rule 17—Amendment of Pleadings
(D) Order 1, Rule 10—Joinder and Substitution of Parties
Answer: (D)
Q6. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
(A) Section 100
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 104
(D) Section 96
Answer: (D)
Q7. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
(A) 60 Days
(B) 120 Days
(C) 90 Days
(D) 30 Days
Answer: (C)
Q8. Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of States from personal appearance in court?
(A) Section 133
(B) Section 128
(C) Section 130
(D) Section 132
Answer: (A)
Q9. What is the term used for a court's power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Reference
(B) Review
(C) Transfer of suits
(D) Res Judicata
Answer: (C)
Q10. Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
(A) Order XXXVII
(B) Order XXXIV
(C) Order XXXVI
(D) Order XXXV
Answer: (A)
Q11. Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
(A) 198
(B) 298
(C) 398
(D) 98
Answer: (C)
Q12. ________ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
(A) Section 89
(B) Section 92
(C) Section 86
(D) Section 88
Answer: (D)
Q13. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
(A) Section 35(A)
(B) Section 35(B)
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 35
Answer: (A)
Q14. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
(A) Coercion
(B) Threat
(C) Promise
(D) Inducement
Answer: (A)
Q15. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in ________.
(A) Section 13 of the BSA, 2023
(B) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
(C) Section 15 of the BSA, 2023
(D) Section 12 of the BSA, 2023
Answer: (B)
Q16. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
(A) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
(B) The evidence is inadmissible because the police did not obtain a search warrant before recovering the laptop.
(C) The fingerprints must be verified by at least two independent forensic experts before being presented in court.
(D) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are automatically considered conclusive proof of Rajesh's guilt.
Answer: (A)
Q17. Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as an electronic or digital records, the BSA, 2023 classifies each part as a?
(A) Secondary evidence
(B) Circumstantial evidence
(C) Scientific evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Answer: (D)
Q18. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
(A) 165
(B) 268
(C) 168
(D) 65
Answer: (A)
Q19. According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
(A) Only when related to other relevant fact
(B) Never relevant
(C) Only in criminal cases
(D) Always relevant to prove conduct
Answer: (A)
Q20. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of 'res judicata'?
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 11
Answer: (D)
Q21. Under Section 146 of the BSA, 2023, when are leading questions permissible in the court proceedings?
(A) Leading questions are not allowed during cross-examination.
(B) Leading questions can be asked in examination-in-chief, re-examination, cross-examination without any objection.
(C) Leading questions are permitted during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.
(D) Leading questions are always allowed during examination-in-chief without restriction.
Answer: (C)
Q22. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
(A) It involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.
(B) The mediator acts as a judge and renders a verdict.
(C) It is always court-ordered.
(D) The mediator imposes a binding decision.
Answer: (A)
Q23. A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. over a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?
(A) The parties must mutually select an arbitrator, and if they fail, the arbitration will not take place.
(B) The arbitrator must be appointed by the Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) in all cases.
(C) The parties can resolve the appointment issue by opting for conciliation instead of arbitration.
(D) The court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.
Answer: (D)
Q24. Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
(A) It offers more confidentiality than traditional court cases.
(B) It always results in a binding decision.
(C) It is often less expensive than court proceedings.
(D) It is generally faster than litigation.
Answer: (B)
Q25. Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?
(A) Section 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set aside by the court.
(B) Section 9 of the Act governs the enforcement of arbitral awards.
(C) Section 11 of the Act deals with the enforcement of arbitral awards, not the appeal.
(D) Section 34 of the Act deals with the enforcement of an arbitral award.
Answer: (A)
Q26. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA, 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
(A) The officer did not hold the claimed official character at the time of signing.
(B) The officer held the official character claimed when signing or certifying the document.
(C) The document's authenticity is independent of the official's official character.
(D) The officer's signature is assumed to be forgery.
Answer: (B)
Q27. Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person, to marry again ________.
(A) have to wait for a period of six months from the date of the decree.
(B) may marry immediately thereafter without the leave of the court as a matter of right.
(C) have to wait for a period of one year from the date of the decree.
(D) None of these.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
Q28. Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decides to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Which of the following statements is true regarding the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Aarti can seek divorce on the grounds of cruelty, as long as she proves mental or physical cruelty.
(B) Aarti cannot seek divorce on the grounds of cruelty as it is not recognized under the Hindu Marriage Act.
(C) Aarti must prove Rajesh's cruelty was intentional to succeed in her divorce petition.
(D) Aarti can only seek divorce on the grounds of adultery.
Answer: (A)
Q29. On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
(A) The Smritis
(B) The Shrutis
(C) Mitakshara
(D) The local customs
Answer: (C)
Q30. Nisha and Aakash are separated, and they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890. Which of the following factors will the court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?
(A) The gender of the child.
(B) The welfare and best interests of the child.
(C) The parent who is financially more stable is granted custody automatically.
(D) The financial stability of both the parents.
Answer: (B)
Q31. Match the following:
a. Spoken words
b. Deepika v. CAT
c. Silence
d. Ass Kaur v. Kartar Singh
e. Shayara Bano v. UOI
i. Sunnat-ul-Qaul
ii. Customary Law
iii. Sunnat-ul-Taqrir
iv. Atypical Relationships
v. Triple Talaq
vi. Maintenance
Choose the correct option:
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-vi
(B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
(C) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-vi
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-ii, d-iv, e-vi
Answer: (B)
Q32. Which section discusses with regard to "sapinda relationships" under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(iv)
(B) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(iv)
(C) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(v)
(D) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(v)
Answer: (C)
Q33. The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section ________ of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
(A) 11
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
Q34. In which case a prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture, which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the Court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?
(A) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(B) Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
(C) The Narasimha Rao case
(D) Hussainara Khatoon v. Bihar case
Answer: (A)
Q35. In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there and one of the following views of the Court was sustained in the said case, identify from the following:
(A) The judgment primarily focused on providing monetary compensation to the affected labourers without addressing the systemic issues of bonded labour.
(B) The Supreme Court recognized the right against forced labour as a fundamental right derived from the right to life and human dignity under Article 21.
(C) The Court ruled that only government agencies, and not social activists, could file petitions concerning labour rights.
(D) The Court established that the right to free legal aid is a mere directive principle and cannot be enforced as a fundamental right.
Answer: (B)
Q36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases.
Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
(A) Only Statement 1 is true.
(B) Only Statement 2 is true.
(C) Both Statements are false.
(D) Both Statements are true.
Answer: (C)
Q37. Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq. Fatima now seeks maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance. Under Muslim Law, which of the following statement is true regarding Fatima's claim for maintenance?
(A) Fatima is entitled to maintenance only for a period of three months after the divorce.
(B) Fatima is entitled to maintenance for herself during her iddat period and for her children until they are self-supporting.
(C) Fatima can claim maintenance for herself and her children indefinitely, irrespective of her remarriage or the children's age.
(D) Fatima is not entitled to maintenance because she has remarried.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
Q38. Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?
(A) Laws enacted by Parliament or the Legislature.
(B) Laws made by an administrative authority under powers given to them by Parliament.
(C) A judicial decision made by an administrative tribunal.
(D) Legislation passed by local governments.
Answer: (B)
Q39. In 2020 at Dhorodo village the Panchayat elections could not happen due to Covid pandemic while the tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh, representing the people of the Panchayat made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayati Raj Act of the state to restrict their economic activities per day to Rs. 100 only. In which of the following case this is allowed or restricted?
(A) Patna University v. Amita Tiwari
(B) Jalan Trading v. Union of India
(C) MCD v. Birla Cotton Mills
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Q40. Which of the following is/are not ground/s for judicial review of administrative action?
(1) Illegality
(2) Irrationality
(3) Proportionality
(4) Public opinion
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (4)
(D) Only (2)
Answer: (C)
Q41. What does "conflict of interest" refer to in professional ethics?
(A) A situation where two professionals disagree.
(B) A conflict between ethics and laws.
(C) A situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties.
(D) A situation involving legal disputes.
Answer: (C)
Q42. Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y's interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option:
(A) It is only an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 2018.
(B) It amounts to criminal conspiracy under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
(C) It amounts to the Contempt of Court under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
(D) It is a violation of Rules made by the Bar Council of India for professional ethics.
Answer: (D)
Q43. The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct:
(1) Criminal in nature
(2) Neither civil nor criminal
(3) Quasi-criminal in nature
(4) Civil in nature
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (3)
(C) (1), (3) and (4)
(D) Both (1) and (4)
Answer: (B)
Q44. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The concept of "locus standi" is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (A) is false, and (R) is true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (D)
Q45. As per Section 2(84) Share means share in the share capital of a company and includes:
(1) Debentures
(2) Preference Shares
(3) Stocks
(4) Bonds
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Only (3)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (1) and (2)
Answer: (B)
Q46. Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for ________.
(A) Kinds of Share Capital
(B) Buy Back of Shares
(C) Reduction in Share Capital
(D) Issue of Shares at Premium
Answer: (A)
Q47. A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as "X" has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Local residents and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation to daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Despite multiple complaints to the local pollution control board, no action has been taken against the company. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) It is the violation of Section 40 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
(B) It is not the violation of the provisions of the laws stated in the problem.
(C) It is the violation of Section 23 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
(D) It is the violation of Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Answer: (D)
Q48. Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation:
(A) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(B) The Factories Act, 1948
(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Answer: (C)
Q49. Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary?
(1) Cyber Cafes
(2) Telecom Regulators
(3) Social Media Platforms
(4) Internet Service Providers
(A) (1), (3) and (4)
(B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (2) and (3)
Answer: (A)
Q50. Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectivity and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards?
(1) Act in a fraudulent manner
(2) Providing peer-review of valuation, if necessary
(3) Non-Disclosure of any prior association with the client
(4) Non-Disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (4)
(C) (2) and (4)
(D) (3) and (4)
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee
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