Practice the AIBE 7 (2014) Part 1 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. As per the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, the word "inspection" used in Section 93(1)(C) refers to:
(A) Things or documents
(B) Documents only
(C) Locality and place
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Q2. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 of CrPC can be used during trial for:
(A) Corroborating the witness
(B) Contradicting the witness
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) and (B)
Answer: (B)
Q3. "If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such minor offence has been committed." It was so upheld in which case:
(A) Sangarabonia Sreenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
(B) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
(C) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu
Answer: (B)
Q4. Ex dolo malo oritur actio is:
(A) An action arose only when a right infringes
(B) An action could not prevent a legal right
(C) No action on an immoral act
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Q5. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than:
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Answer: (D)
Q6. Section 167 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the nature of custody can be altered from judicial custody to police custody or vice-versa. This alteration can be done during the period of first:
(A) 15 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 14 days
(D) 12 days
Answer: (C)
Q7. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for police officer to inform the person arrested the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable:
(A) Section 150
(B) Section 50
(C) Section 50A
(D) Section 510
Answer: (B)
Q8. Section 41-B is inserted in the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions:
(A) Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dhani
(B) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(C) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
(D) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Answer: (D)
Q9. Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a clinical Psychologist/Psychiatrist. However by virtue of Section ......... of aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of Head of Psychiatry and faculty of Medical College:
(A) 328
(B) 328(A)
(C) 328(2)
(D) 346
Answer: (C)
Q10. Identify the correct order in which the following law making treaties are concluded:
- The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations
- The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
- The Declaration of Paris
(A) (1), (3), (2)
(B) (3), (2), (1)
(C) (2), (1), (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3)
Answer: (C)
Q11. Which one of the following doctrine requires that the parties to a treaty are bound to observe its terms in good faith?
(A) The Drago doctrine
(B) Right of asylum
(C) Doctrine of equality
(D) Pacta Sunt Servanda
Answer: (A)
Q12. General Assembly adopted the definition of word Aggression through:
(A) Resolution 3314 XXIX, 1974
(B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX, 1973
(C) Resolution 2213, 1982
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Q13. The admission of a new political entity into the United Nations can be termed as:
(A) Express recognition
(B) Conditional recognition
(C) Collective recognition
(D) De-facto recognition
Answer: (C)
Q14. "A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively." Who stated this?
(A) L. Oppenheim
(B) Hobbes
(C) Fenwick
(D) Starke
Answer: (A)
Q15. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in:
(A) 1997
(B) 1998
(C) 1996
(D) 2013
Answer: (C)
Q16. Section 3 of Information Technology Act, 2000 which was originally Digital Signature was renamed as ................. in ITA:2008:
(A) Digital Signature and Electronic Signature
(B) Digital Signature and E-signature
(C) Digital and Electronic Signature
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q17. Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?
(A) M/s Safescript
(B) M/s NCERT
(C) M/s MTI
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
Q18. Section 43 of the Information Technology Act deals with:
(A) Criminal liability
(B) Civil liability
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q19. "Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected." Which section of the Information Technology Amendment Act, 2008 envisages to:
(A) 43
(B) 43A
(C) 43B
(D) 430
Answer: (B)
Q20. R obtained a sum of ₹50,000/- from D by putting D in fear of death. Here R commits:
(A) Extortion
(B) Cheating
(C) Mischief
(D) Robbery
Answer: (A)
Q21. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana is mainly meant to serve the needs of:
(A) Organised workers
(B) Unorganised workers
(C) Unorganized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
(D) Organized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
Answer: (C)
Q22. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is proclaimed under ...... of the Constitution of India.
(A) Article 39(a)
(B) Article 39(d)
(C) Article 39(b)
(D) Article 39(c)
Answer: (B)
Q23. Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year:
(A) 1992
(B) 1982
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Answer: (B)
Q24. .......... was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to go slow:
(A) Bank of India v. T.S. Kelawala and Others
(B) Randhir Singh v. Union of India
(C) Kamani Metals and Alloys Ltd. v. Their Workmen
(D) Workmen v. Reptakos Brett and Co. Ltd.
Answer: (A)
Q25. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute/difference arising out of such termination shall be deemed to be:
(A) Industrial dispute
(B) Individual dispute
(C) Both individual and industrial dispute
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q26. Gloucestershire Grammar School Case is a leading case to explain the:
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) Injuria non fit volenti
(C) Damnum sine injuria
(D) Injuria sine damnum
Answer: (C)
Q27. In the judgment of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by .......... to prepare a case management formula:
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Justice Muralidhar
(C) Justice Ravendran
(D) Justice Jagannadha Rao
Answer: (D)
Q28. The 2013 Companies Act has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to:
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 150
Answer: (B)
Q29. The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the 2013 Act and would be subject to notification by the:
(A) NFRA
(B) NRFA
(C) NARF
(D) SEBI
Answer: (A)
Q30. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is .......... from the date on which it becomes due.
(A) 1 year
(B) 5 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 15 years
Answer: (A)
Q31. The Jural correlative of immunity is:
(A) Power
(B) Disability
(C) No claim
(D) Claim
Answer: (B)
Q32. Who defines "eternal law as the divine order or will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach of it."
(A) Ambrose
(B) Augustine
(C) Gregory
(D) All the above
Answer: (B)
Q33. "Government even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one." Who stated so?
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) Gregory Peck
(C) Jefferson
(D) Dicey
Answer: (A)
Q34. The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of tribunal as instruments of quasi-judicial administrative adjudication:
(A) Article 39A and 39(b)
(B) Article 323A and 323B
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 202-A and 202-B
Answer: (B)
Q35. Nemo judex in causa sua meaning "No man shall be judge in his own cause" was first stated by .......... in Dr. Bonham's Case.
(A) Lord Grey
(B) Lord Heward
(C) Lord Coke
(D) Lord Moulton
Answer: (C)
Q36. General power of the Bar Council of India to make rules is envisaged under which section of the Advocates Act, 1961:
(A) Section 48
(B) Section 49
(C) Section 11-2
(D) Section IV-A
Answer: (B)
Q37. Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to:
(A) Justice Abbot Parry
(B) Justice Heward
(C) Justice Bhagawathi
(D) Justice Grey
Answer: (A)
Q38. Which section under the Advocates Act, 1961 speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India:
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 36
(D) 39
Answer: (C)
Q39. Section .......... of Advocates Act, 1961 speaks about constitution of Legal Aid Committees:
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 9-A
(D) 10-A
Answer: (C)
Q40. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code Amendment Act of .......... which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanisms:
(A) 1989
(B) 1999
(C) 1988
(D) 2009
Answer: (B)
Q41. In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside India, unless parties' provisions have been excluded by agreement between the parties:
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A.
(B) United India Co. Ltd. v. Associated Transport Corporation Ltd.
(C) Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd.
(D) Ajmera Brothers v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain
Answer: (A)
Q42. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under Section .......... of the Legal Services Authority Act of 1987:
(A) 22B
(B) 22A
(C) 22(I)
(D) 22
Answer: (A)
Q43. Frost v. Knight is a leading case on:
(A) Section 32
(B) Section 33
(C) Section 34
(D) Section 35
Answer: (C)
Q44. Which among the following is a law based on equity?
(A) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(B) Indian Penal Code, 1863
(C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
(D) Specific Relief Act, 1963
Answer: (D)
Q45. Which section of the Specific Relief Act describes temporary injunction:
(A) 45
(B) 41
(C) 37
(D) 36
Answer: (C)
Q46. The maintenance amount which can be transferred is:
(A) Future maintenance
(B) Right to future maintenance
(C) Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Q47. The maximum period during which property can be tied up is:
(A) Only 15 years
(B) One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and minority of an unborn person
(C) During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q48. What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts?
(A) Specific performance and injunction
(B) Specific performance and damages
(C) Specific performance only
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q49. 'A' resides at Delhi, and 'B' at Agra. 'B' borrows ₹20,000/- from 'A' at Banaras and passes a promissory note to 'A' payable at Banaras. 'B' fails to repay the loan. 'A' may sue 'B' at:
(A) Banaras or Agra
(B) Banaras only
(C) Agra only
(D) Banaras, Agra and Delhi
Answer: (A)
Q 50. The general principle of waiver that provides the failure to raise objection in the court of the first instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent state and the judgment would not be vitiated on the ground of absence of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil Procedure Code.
(A) Section 15
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 21
Answer: (D)
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