AIBE 18 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers (Solved)

Practice the AIBE 18 (2023)  Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision

Q1. The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated from the experience of the following country?
(A) America
(B) Australia
(C) Ireland
(D) United Kingdom
Answer: (B)

Q2. Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Certiorari
(D) Prohibition
Answer: (A)

Q3. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?
(A) 52nd Amendment
(B) 54th Amendment
(C) 56th Amendment
(D) 58th Amendment
Answer: (D)

Q4. Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legislation?
(A) State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh
(B) M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
(C) State of Karnataka v. Union of India
(D) Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay
Answer: (A)

Q5. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?
(A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
(B) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
(C) The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
(D) The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961
Answer: (C)

Q6. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 254
(D) Article 256
Answer: (C)

Q7. What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing official language of Union from English to Hindi?
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 25 years
Answer: (C)

Q8. In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?
(A) Chakradhar Paswan v. State of Bihar
(B) K.C. Vasanth Kumar v. State of Karnataka
(C) A.B.S.K. Sangh (Rly) v. Union of India
(D) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
Answer: (A)

Q9. Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 19(1)(b)
(B) Article 19(1)(d)
(C) Article 19(1)(e)
(D) Article 19(1)(g)
Answer: (D)

Q10. Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Article 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?
(A) Doctrine of Harmonious construction
(B) Doctrine of Casus Omissus
(C) Doctrine of liberal interpretation
(D) Doctrine of Pith and substance
Answer: (A)

Q11. In which of the following situations, Indian Penal Code, 1860 may not apply?
i. An offence committed by Indians outside India.
ii. An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India.
iii. Any person committing offence targeting computer resources located in any country.
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Only iii
(D) Only i & ii
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q12. How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)

Q13. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing, while playing fairly, A hurts Z severely. Which of the following offence is committed by A?
(A) Hurt
(B) Attempt to murder
(C) Grievous hurt
(D) No offence
Answer: (D)

Q14. In which of the following situations right of private defence cannot extend to causing death?
(A) In case when an assault is causing apprehension of murder.
(B) In case when assault is reflecting intention of committing rape.
(C) In case when assault is reflecting intention of causing simple hurt.
(D) In case when assault is reflecting intention of gratifying unnatural lust.
Answer: (C)

Q15. For which of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word benefit does not include pecuniary benefits?
(A) Section 89
(B) Section 155
(C) Section 156
(D) Section 370
Answer: (A)

Q16. X intentionally pulls up a woman's veil without her consent intending to annoy her. As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following offence he has committed?
(A) Hurt
(B) Criminal force
(C) Assault
(D) Grievous hurt
Answer: (B)

Q17. What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order that such minor may be used for the purposes of begging?
(A) Imprisonment for 5 years and fine
(B) Imprisonment for 7 years and fine
(C) Imprisonment for 10 years and fine
(D) Imprisonment for life and fine
Answer: (D)

Q18. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him money. Which of the following punishment may be given to X for the act committed by him as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Imprisonment upto 2 years, or with fine or with both.
(B) Imprisonment upto 3 years, or with fine or with both.
(C) Imprisonment upto 5 years, or with fine or with both.
(D) Imprisonment upto 7 years, or with fine or with both.
Answer: (B)

Q19. Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge authorised to pass as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Sentence of death.
(B) Sentence of imprisonment for life.
(C) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
(D) Sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.
Answer: (C)

Q20. A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer if such person comes under which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 41A
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 43
Answer: (D)

Q21. Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled for maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Husband presumes that wife is living in adultery.
(B) Voluntarily wife refuses to live with husband.
(C) Wife living separately as husband keeps a mistress.
(D) Wife is forcefully removed from the house.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q22. Which of the following procedure is dealt under Section 164-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Medical examination of the victim of rape.
(B) Attendance of witness by police officer.
(C) Recording of confession statement.
(D) Recording of first information report by police officer.
Answer: (A)

Q23. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to diary of proceedings in investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) The Statements of witnesses recorded during investigation shall be inserted in the diary.
(B) The diary shall be duly paginated.
(C) The diary may be used as evidence.
(D) Can be used by the police officers to refresh memory.
Answer: (C)

Q24. In which of the following cases manner of committing offence is not required to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.
(B) A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.
(C) A is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.
(D) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.
Answer: (A)

Q25. Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Offence under Section 454 of the IPC.
(B) Offence under Section 504 of the IPC.
(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
(D) Offence punishable with life imprisonment.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q26. Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for reference to High Court?
(A) Section 275
(B) Section 325
(C) Section 383
(D) Section 395
Answer: (D)

Q27. A person accused of the following offence may not be granted bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
i. Accused of offence under Section 376AB of the IPC.
ii. Accused of offence under Section 376DA of the IPC.
iii. Accused of offence under Section 376DB of the IPC.
(A) i & ii
(B) ii & iii
(C) iii & i
(D) i, ii & iii
Answer: (D)

Q28. Which of the following act if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered, shall not vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Recall a case and try it under Section 410 of the Cr.P.C.
(C) Attach property under Section 83 of the Cr.P.C.
(D) Hold an inquest under Section 176 of the Cr.P.C.
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q29. Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Averments made in the plaint.
(B) Averments made in the written statement.
(C) Both (A) & (B).
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).
Answer: (A)

Q30. Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
(B) Suit for rights of franchise.
(C) Suit for specific reliefs.
(D) Suit relating to rights of worship.
Answer: (D)

Q31. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in representative suit?
(A) Section 11, Explanation VI
(B) Section 11, Explanation VII
(C) Section 11, Explanation VIII
(D) Section 11, Explanation V
Answer: (B)

Q32. In which of the following situations a Court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant?
(A) If defendant reside within the local limit of the Court's jurisdiction.
(B) If defendant resides within 40 miles from the Court.
(C) If defendant resides 250 miles away from the Court in an area having public conveyance available.
(D) Woman to whom Section 132 Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 does not apply.
Answer: (C)

Q33. In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Dismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff's failure to pay costs.
(B) Dismissal of suit because neither party appeared.
(C) Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not appear.
(D) Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within given time limit once it returned unserved.
Answer: (C)

Q34. How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) No limit prescribed
Answer: (B)

Q35. Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
(C) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
(D) Such provision does not exist.
Answer: (A)

Q36. Which of the following is not included in the word "costs" as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) The expenses of the witnesses incurred.
(B) Legal fees and expenses incurred.
(C) Fooding and lodging expenses incurred.
(D) Any other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings.
Answer: (C)

Q37. What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for service of notice on him in case of a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?
(A) Seven days from the date of receiving of summons.
(B) Ten days from the date of receiving of summons.
(C) Fifteen days from the date of receiving of summons.
(D) Thirty days from the date of receiving of summons.
Answer: (B)

Q38. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 the appellate Court may remit an issue for trial to lower Court?
(A) Order XLI Rule 23
(B) Order XLI Rule 23-A
(C) Order XLI Rule 24
(D) Order XLI Rule 25
Answer: Withdrawn by Monitoring Committee

Q39. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Whatever said by A or B at the time of beating.
(B) Whatever done by A or B at the time of beating.
(C) Whatever said by by-standers at the time of beating.
(D) Whatever said by A or B a day before the day of beating.
Answer: (D)

Q40. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that the confession to police-officer shall not be proved against him?
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 27
Answer: (B)

Q41. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 37
Answer: (C)

Q42. Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of the documents?
(A) Contents of the documents shall be proved by primary evidence.
(B) Contents of the documents may be proved by secondary evidence.
(C) Contents of the documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence.
(D) Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.
Answer: (D)

Q43. Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief.
(B) Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.
(C) Leading questions may be asked in re-examination.
(D) Leading question cannot be asked in cross-examination.
Answer: (B)

Q44. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence?
(A) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer
(B) State of Haryana v. Jai Singh
(C) State of Maharashtra v. Natwarlal Damodardas Soni
(D) State of Punjab v. Jagir Singh
Answer: (A)

Q45. Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Confession always go against a person making it.
(B) Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted.
(C) Admissions may operate as an estoppel.
(D) Confession is statement written or oral which is direct admission of suit.
Answer: (B)

Q46. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?
(A) Section 32(1)
(B) Section 32(2)
(C) Section 32(3)
(D) Section 32(5)
Answer: (A)

Q47. Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
(C) Lok Adalat
(D) Negotiation
Answer: (D)

Q48. Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?
(A) No Court-fee is required in Lok Adalat.
(B) Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal matters.
(C) Award of Lok Adalat is a deemed decree.
(D) No appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed.
Answer: (B)

Q49. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) Arbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.
(B) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.
(C) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.
(D) Arbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may arise between the parties.
Answer: (A)

Q50. In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) When a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.
(B) When a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.
(C) When he possesses the qualifications agreed by the party.
(D) When he becomes ineligible as per the Seventh Schedule of the Act.
Answer: (C)

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