Practice the AIBE 18 (2023) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) When they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.
(B) When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.
(C) When they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.
(D) When they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.
Answer: (B)
Q52. Which of the following is generally not considered as a valid condition for a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) The parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
(B) The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.
(C) The parties should not be sapindas of each other.
(D) The parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.
Answer: (B)
Q53. Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following:
i. Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights
ii. Grounds for judicial separation
iii. Grounds for divorce
(A) i & ii
(B) ii & iii
(C) iii & i
(D) Only iii
Answer: (B)
Q54. What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?
(A) Valid marriage
(B) Void marriage
(C) Voidable marriage
(D) Irregular marriage
Answer: (B)
Q55. What is a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her called under the Muslim Law?
(A) Talaq-us-sunnat
(B) Talaq-ul-biddat
(C) Talaq-i-tafweez
(D) Talaq-al-hasanah
Answer: (C)
Q56. A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law:
i. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
ii. The Special Marriage Act, 1954
(A) Only i is correct.
(B) Only ii is correct.
(C) Both i and ii are correct.
(D) Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (C)
Q57. Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparcenary property is made available to a girl child as well?
(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002
(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006
Answer: (C)
Q58. What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter for a valid adoption?
(A) 15 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) No specific age difference required.
Answer: (C)
Q59. Which of the following case may be considered as the first reported case of PIL in India?
(A) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(D) Kalyaneshwari v. Union of India
Answer: (B)
Q60. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?
(A) Justice S.R. Das
(B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(D) Justice R. Khanna
Answer: (C)
Q61. Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?
(A) Against a State Government
(B) Against Central Government
(C) Against a private party
(D) Against Municipal Corporation
Answer: (C)
Q62. In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?
(A) Bonded labour matters.
(B) Petition from jail for pre-mature release.
(C) Matters pertaining to neglected children.
(D) Petitions against police for refusing to register a case.
Answer: (B)
Q63. In which of the following landmark case it was held that Principles of Natural Justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?
(A) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
(B) Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab
(C) Sonik Industries Rajkot v. Municipal Corporation, Rajkot
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: (A)
Q64. In which of the following judgment the Supreme Court had comprehensively reconsidered S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India case?
(A) J.B. Chopra v. Union of India
(B) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(C) R.K. Jain v. Union of India
(D) S.K. Sarkar v. Vinay Chandra Mishra
Answer: (B)
Q65. Who among the following defined administrative law as "the law relating to the control of governmental power"?
(A) Ivor Jennings
(B) Wade
(C) K.C. Davis
(D) Garner
Answer: (B)
Q66. What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practising in Courts under the Advocates Act, 1961?
(A) Imprisonment upto 3 months
(B) Imprisonment upto 6 months
(C) Imprisonment upto 9 months
(D) Imprisonment upto 12 months
Answer: (B)
Q67. Which provision of the Advocate Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates?
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 42A
(C) Section 48A
(D) Section 49
Answer: (D)
Q68. Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India Rules?
(A) An Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.
(B) An Advocate shall appear in Court at all times only in the prescribed dress.
(C) An Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.
(D) An Advocate shall not influence the decision of a Court by any improper means.
Answer: (A)
Q69. Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Chairman of the Bar Council of India
(B) Vice-chairman of the Bar Council of India
(C) High Courts
(D) Supreme Court of India
Answer: (D)
Q70. In which of the following situations a one person company (OPC) will mandatorily get converted into either private or public company?
(A) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.
(B) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
(C) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.
(D) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.
Answer: (B)
Q71. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: (B)
Q72. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India had explained the Precautionary Principle in detail?
(A) Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
Answer: (A)
Q73. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in the Environmental Law?
(A) Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(B) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
Answer: (D)
Q74. In which of the following case Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down by the Supreme Court?
(A) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(B) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) K.A. Abbas v. Union of India
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer: (A)
Q75. In which of the following case an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(A) Electronic record sent by the originator himself.
(B) Electronic record sent by an authorised person.
(C) Electronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.
(D) Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person.
Answer: (D)
Q76. What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 8 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 26 weeks
Answer: (D)
Q77. For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Answer: (A)
Q78. What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) 100 workers
(B) 150 workers
(C) 200 workers
(D) 250 workers
Answer: (D)
Q79. Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of Rs. 6,000
(B) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of Rs. 8,000
(C) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of Rs. 10,000
(D) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of Rs. 12,000
Answer: (D)
Q80. Who has defined tort as "tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages"?
(A) Lindsell
(B) Pollock
(C) Salmond
(D) Winfield
Answer: (D)
Q81. Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damno
(C) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(D) Volenti non fit injuria
Answer: (A)
Q82. Which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to fault liability?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 151
(C) Section 162
(D) Section 128
Answer: (A)
Q83. How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (C)
Q84. Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on promotion and protection of consumers' right under the Act?
(A) Central Consumer Protection Authority
(B) Central Consumer Protection Council
(C) State Consumer Protection Authority
(D) State Consumer Protection Council
Answer: : (B)
Q85. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?
(A) Article 246
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 260
(D) Article 265
Answer: (D)
Q86. Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Start from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(B) Start from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(C) Start from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(D) Start from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
Answer: (B)
Q87. As per the Income Tax Act, 1961 a person is said to be resident of India in any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in the previous year?
(A) 180 days
(B) 182 days
(C) 184 days
(D) 186 days
Answer: (B)
Q88. Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Section 2(31)
(B) Section 2(24)
(C) Section 2(9)
(D) Section 3
Answer: (B)
Q89. Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) A promise made without intention of performing it.
(B) An active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.
(C) Mere silence if not duty bound to speak.
(D) Any act or omission law specifically declared to be fraudulent.
Answer: (C)
Q90. Which of the following statement is correct if A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A's factory, and thereby induces B to buy the factory?
(A) Contract is void ab initio.
(B) Contract is voidable at the option of A.
(C) Contract is voidable at the option of B.
(D) Contract is voidable at the option of A & B.
Answer: (C)
Q91. Which of the following injunction can be granted only by the decree made at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?
(A) Temporary injunction
(B) Perpetual injunction
(C) Mandatory injunction
(D) Prohibitory injunction
Answer: (B)
Q92. A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest in default to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) Section 73
(B) Section 74
(C) Section 75
(D) Section 76
Answer: (B)
Q93. What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 8% per annum
(C) 9% per annum
(D) No default rate prescribed.
Answer: (C)
Q94. Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) Life of the transferee.
(B) A period of 18 years from the date of transfer.
(C) Either (A) or (B) whichever is longer.
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).
Answer: (B)
Q95. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Promissory note
(B) Hundi
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Cheque
Answer: (B)
Q96. In the light of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instruments?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 10% per annum
(C) 18% per annum
(D) 20% per annum
Answer: (C)
Q97. Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no award is made, the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land shall lapse as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 18 months
(D) 24 months
Answer: (B)
Q98. What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
(A) 75%
(B) 80%
(C) 90%
(D) 100%
Answer: (B)
Q99. Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes. What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made by them?
(A) Patents
(B) Geographical Indications
(C) Trademarks
(D) Registered designs
Answer: (C)
Q100. How long do patents usually last for?
(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 50 years
Answer: (B)
