Practice the AIBE 13 (2018) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided under Article 19(1)(a) on this ground:
(A) Defamation
(B) Public Order
(C) Sedition
(D) Security of the State
Answer: C
Q2. Right guaranteed to citizen only is:
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 19(1)(a)
(D) Article 25
Answer: C
Q3. President can be removed on the ground of?
(A) Proved Misbehaviour
(B) Incapacity
(C) Violation of Constitution
(D) All the above
Answer: C
Q4. The designation 'Senior Advocates' is provided under:
(A) Section 16, Advocates Act, 1961
(B) Section 26, Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 6, Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 15, Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: A
Q5. Right to pre-audience is provided by:
(A) Section 33 of Advocates Act, 1961
(B) Section 23 of Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 16 of Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 36 of Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: B
Q6. The 'Contempt of Court' belongs to:
(A) Entry 77 of Union List and Entry 14 of State List in the VIIth Schedule of Constitution of India
(B) Entry 70 of Union List and Entry 40 of State List
(C) Entry 67 of Union List and Entry 13 of State List
(D) None of these
Answer: D
Q7. Who was the Chief Justice of India when the Concept of PIL was introduced to Indian Judicial System:
(A) M. Hidayatullah
(B) A.M. Ahmadi
(C) A.S. Anand
(D) P.N. Bhagwati
Answer: D
Q8. The Supreme Court of India issued a number of direction for the prevention of Women in Various forms of prostitution and to rehabilitate their Children Through various welfare measures and so as to provide them with dignity of person and livelihood and socio-economic development in the case of:
(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 Section 3011
(B) Gaurav Jain v. Union of India, AIR 1997 Section 3021
(C) Delhi Domestic Working Women's Forum v. Union of India, (1998) 1 Section 14
(D) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 35 Section 596
Answer: B
Q9. "Hadees" is one of the sources of Muslim law it comprises:
(A) Very words of God
(B) Words and actions of the prophet
(C) Unanimous decision of jurists
(D) Analogical decisions
Answer: B
Q10. Intellectual Property Appellate Board is established under which Act:
(A) The Copyright Act, 1957
(B) The Patent Act, 1970
(C) The Trademark Act, 1999
(D) The Designs Act, 2000
Answer: C
Q11. What is the maximum duration within which fast track arbitration must be completed:
(A) 6 Months
(B) 12 Months
(C) 18 Months
(D) 24 Months
Answer: A
Q12. Which one of the following section deals with form of summons?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 61
(C) Section 62
(D) Section 64
Answer: B
Q13. Under Cr.P.C. provisions relating to prosecution of judge is provided under:
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) Section 199
Answer: B
Q14. A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and C at Delhi. A, B and C being together at Allahabad, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may sue B and C:
(A) At Allahabad where the cause of action arises
(B) At Calcutta, where B resides
(C) At Delhi, where C resides
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q15. Section 25 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding:
(A) From one High Court to another High Court
(B) From one Civil Court in one state to another Civil Court in any other state
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Only (A)
Answer: C
Q16. In which of the following cases, can C set-off the claim?
(A) A sues C on a bill of exchange for 500/-, C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C's goods and he is liable to pay compensation.
(B) A sues C on a bill of exchange for 500/-, C holds a decree against A for recovery of debt of 1,000/-.
(C) A sues B and C for 1,000/-, the debt is due to C alone by A.
(D) A and B sues C for 1,000/, the debt is due to C by alone.
Answer: B
Q17. The Latin phrase 'Res IPSA Loquitur' means:
(A) Things speaks it's story itself
(B) Where there is consent there is no
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q18. In which of the following cases the 'Principal of common Employment' was evolved for the first time?
(A) Rylands v. Fletcher
(B) Priestley v. Fowler
(C) Ashby v. White
(D) Wagon v. Mound
Answer: B
Q19. Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council is conferred the powers of Civil Court under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 by:
(A) Section 36 of Advocates Act 1961
(B) Section 42 of Advocates Act 1961
(C) Section 42-A of Advocates Act 1961
(D) Section 28 of Advocates Act 1961
Answer: B
Q20. Which one of the following is a leading case on 'Injuria Sine Damnum'?
(A) Rylands v. Fletcher
(B) Ashby v. White
(C) Donogue v. Stevenson
(D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q21. Which one is leading case on Strict Liability?
(A) Allen v. Flood
(B) Rylands v. Fletcher
(C) Borhill v. Young
(D) Donogue v. Stevenson
Answer: B
Q22. Section 66A was invalidated by the Supreme Court of India in:
(A) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer, (2014)10 SCC 473
(B) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1523
(C) Dr. Prafulla Desai v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2003 SC 2053
(D) State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600
Answer: B
Q23. Environmental impact assessment (EIA) is mandatory under:
(A) Indian Forest Act
(B) Air Act
(C) Wildlife Protection Act
(D) Environment Protection Act
Answer: D
Q24. When two or more person, by fighting in a public place disturb the public and the public peace, they are said to commit:
(A) A riot
(B) An Affray
(C) An assault
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q25. Promotion of “class hatred” is given under:
(A) Section 153-A of the I.P.C.
(B) Section 153-AA of the I.P.C.
(C) Section 153-B of the I.P.C.
(D) Section 144-A of the I.P.C.
Answer: A
Q26. The distinction between Section 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill J. in:
(A) Reg v. Gorachand Gopee
(B) Reg v. Govinda
(C) Govinda v. Reg
(D) Reg v. Hayward
Answer: B
Q27. Which of the following is not a Federal feature of any Constitution:
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Double set of Government
(C) Rigid Constitution
(D) Single Citizenship
Answer: D
Q28. Parliament in exercise of its power to amend under Article 368, may not amend:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Right
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Basic Statement
Answer: D
Q29. Which article starts with “Subject to public order, morality and health”:
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 28
(D) Article 25
Answer: D
Q30. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956 provides for the Maintenance of:
(A) Wife
(B) Parents
(C) Widowed daughter-in-law
(D) Children
Answer: C
Q31. Section 30 of the Hindu Successions Act, 1956 deals with:
(A) Woman estate
(B) Testamentary Successions
(C) Male Successions
(D) Female Successions
Answer: B
Q32. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. deals with examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner:
(A) Section 54-A
(B) Section 55-A
(C) Section 53-A
(D) Section 60-A
Answer: C
Q33. According to Section 167 of the Cr.P.C. an accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than:
(A) 7 days at one time
(B) 30 days at one time
(C) 15 days at one time
(D) 60 days at one time
Answer: C
Q34. Which of the following is essential for a valid adoption under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Datta homam
(B) Actual giving and taking of child
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q35. Hindu male can adopt a female child, if the difference of age between the two is of more than:
(A) 15 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: D
Q36. Which of the following relation is not dependent under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956?
(A) Grand Mother
(B) Mother
(C) Widow
(D) Daughter
Answer: A
Q37. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act:
(A) Remains privileged even after dissolution of marriage
(B) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by divorce
(C) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by death
(D) Does not remain privileged in both the case (B) and (C)
Answer: A
Q38. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that an accomplice is a competent witness:
(A) Section 114 illustration (B)
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 133
(D) Section 134
Answer: C
Q39. Which is the subject matter of neighbouring rights protection:
(A) Performance
(B) Dramatic work
(C) Geographical indication
(D) New varieties and plant
Answer: A
Q40. Adam Smith has enumerated canons of taxation which are accepted universally they are:
(A) Equality and Certainty
(B) Equality, convenience and Economy
(C) Equality and Economy
(D) Equality, Certainty, Convenience and Economy
Answer: D
Q41. For the first time in India Income tax law was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:
(A) 1886
(B) 1868
(C) 1860
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q42. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.P.C. deals with compoundable offence?
(A) Section 319
(B) Section 320
(C) Section 321
(D) Section 324
Answer: B
Q43. What is the time limit under Section 468 of Cr.P.C. for taking cognizance:
(A) One year
(B) Two year
(C) Three year
(D) No limit
Answer: C
Q44. “Industrial establishment” means:
(i) A Factory
(ii) A mine
(iii) A Plantation
(iv) An industry
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) Only (i)
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q45. Strike should be called only if at least ..... percent of workers are in support of strike. (Fill in the blank).
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q46. Industrial relations cover the following:
(i) Collective bargaining
(ii) Labour legislation
(iii) Industrial relations training
(iv) Trade unions
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
Q47. The term ‘Suit of a Civil Nature’ refers to:
(A) Private rights and obligations of a citizen
(B) Political, social and religious question
(C) A suit in which principal question relates to caste or religion
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q48. The rule of res Sub-Judice Implies:
(A) Where the same subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on
(B) Where the same subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between different parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on
(C) Where the different subject matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q49. A suit brought by a person to recover possession from a stranger of math property claiming it as heir of the deceased Mahant. The suit is dismissed on his failure to produce the succession certificate. A second suit was filed by him as manager of the math:
(A) The second suit will be barred by Res Judicata
(B) The second suit will not be barred by Res Judicata
(C) The second suit will be barred by Res Sub-Judicata
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q50. Which among the following is not an ADR method under Section 89 of CPC, 1908:
(A) Mini Trial
(B) Judicial settlement Through Lok Adalat
(C) Conciliation
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
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