Practice the AIBE 13 (2018) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. What is the maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a conciliation proceeding:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q52. What is the status of a settlement agreement in conciliation proceeding:
(A) Non-binding
(B) Same as a settlement award
(C) Unlike a settlement award
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q53. Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person is a competent witness if he or she:
(A) Is a major
(B) Is not lunatic
(C) Is not of extreme old age
(D) Is capable of understanding questions put to him and giving rational answers irrespective of age
Answer: D
Q54. Which of the following judgment is irrelevant under Section 43 of Indian Evidence Act:
(A) Judgment of an insolvency court
(B) Judgment of Criminal Court
(C) Judgment of matrimonial court
(D) Judgment of probate court
Answer: B
Q55. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act a witness has been given right to refresh his memory:
(A) Section 157
(B) Section 158
(C) Section 159
(D) Section 160
Answer: C
Q56. “Mandamus” may be issued by:
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: D
Q57. The provision for administration tribunals is added by:
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 24th Amendment
(D) 43rd Amendment
Answer: A
Q58. The provision relating to free legal aid is given under:
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 304
(C) Section 303
(D) Section 305
Answer: B
Q59. Under which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C. police officer is under an obligation to produce the person arrested before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest:
(A) Section 56
(B) Section 57
(C) Section 60
(D) Section 70
Answer: B
Q60. Who may record confessional statement under Section 164 of the Cr.P.C.?
(A) Police Officer
(B) Judicial Officer
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Judicial Magistrate having Jurisdiction only
Answer: B
Q61. The provision relating Plea bargaining is not applicable in following offence:
(A) Socio-economic offence
(B) Offence against women
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q62. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated as:
(A) Abetment by conspiracy
(B) Abetment by Aid
(C) Criminal conspiracy
(D) Abetment
Answer: C
Q63. The provisions regarding sedition are given:
(A) Under Section 124 of the I.P.C.
(B) Under Section 124-A of the I.P.C.
(C) Under Section 121-A of the I.P.C.
(D) Under Section 130 of the I.P.C.
Answer: B
Q64. A suit may be dismissed under Order IX:
(i) Where the summons is not served upon the defendant in consequence of the plaintiff's failure to pay costs for service of summons (Rule 2)
(ii) Where neither the plaintiff nor the defendant appears (Rule 3)
(iii) Where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fail for 7 days to apply for fresh summons (Rule 5)
(iv) Where on the date fixed for hearing in a suit only defendant appears and he does not admit the plaintiff's claim. (Rule 8)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q65. The Ex-officio chairman of the council of state is?
(A) The President
(B) Speaker, Lok Sabha
(C) Vice President
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q66. Right to property in India is:
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Constitutional Right
(C) Statutory Right
(D) Legal Right
Answer: B
Q67. Which of the following writs means to produce the body of a person?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Prohibition
(D) Habeas Corpus
Answer: D
Q68. Delegated legislation was declared constitutional in?
(A) Berubari case
(B) Re Delhi laws act case
(C) Kesavanand Bharti case
(D) Maneka Gandhi case
Answer: B
Q69. A Prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein is known as:
(A) Shelf Prospectus
(B) Memorandum
(C) Red Herring Prospectus
(D) Issuing house
Answer: C
Q70. When there is no profit in one year or the profit of a company is not enough to pay the fixed dividend on preference shares, the arrears of dividend are to be carried forward and paid before a dividend is paid on ordinary shares. This is called:
(A) Participating preference shares
(B) Cumulative preference shares
(C) Non-cumulative preference shares
(D) Non-Participating preference shares
Answer: B
Q71. “Industrial dispute” means any dispute or difference between:
(i) Employers and employers
(ii) Employers and workmen
(iii) Workmen and workmen
(iv) Master and worker
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D
Q72. Who among the following cannot transfer an immovable property?
(A) Hindu widow
(B) Muslim widow
(C) Natural guardian of a minor
(D) Karta or manager of joint Hindu family
Answer: C
Q73. The doctrine of ‘Lis pendens’ was explained in the leading case of:
(A) Bellamy v. Sabine
(B) Cooper v. Coxbar
(C) Streetaily v. Stratefield
(D) Tulk v. Moxhay
Answer: A
Q74. X strike ‘A’. ‘A’ is by this provocation excited to violent rage. ‘Y’ a bystander intending to take advantage of ‘A’s rage and to cause him kill ‘X’, gives a revolver into ‘A’s hand for that purpose. ‘A’ kills ‘X’ with the revolver:
(A) A is liable for committing murder and Y is liable for abetting murder
(B) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is not liable
(C) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is liable for abetting culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(D) A is not liable and Y is liable for abetting murder
Answer: A
Q75. Right to free Legal Aid was recognised as a fundamental right under Act 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of:
(A) Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1360
(B) M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 SC 1548
(C) Madhu Mehta v. Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
(D) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar, (1983) 45 SC 14
Answer: B
Q76. In which country was the concept of PIL originated:
(A) United Kingdom
(B) United State of America
(C) India
(D) Australia
Answer: B
Q77. A question suggesting the answers which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called:
(A) Indecent Questions
(B) Leading Questions
(C) Improper Questions
(D) Proper Questions
Answer: B
Q78. Option of puberty is a ground of divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:
(A) Only Husband
(B) Only Wife
(C) Both Husband and Wife
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q79. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 13(a)
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 16
Answer: D
Q80. Which of the following appears to contribute to global cooling rather than global warming:
(A) Nitrous Oxide
(B) Aerosols
(C) Methane
(D) CFC
Answer: B
Q81. A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which in the course of fencing, may be caused without foul play and if, while playing fairly, hurts B. A commits no offence. The provision are given under:
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 85
(C) Section 86
(D) Section 88
Answer: A
Q82. The provision of the right of private defence are given:
(A) Under Section 96-108 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Under Section 94-106 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Under Section 96-106 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Under Section 95-106 of the Indian Penal Code
Answer: C
Q83. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided under which section of Specific Relief Act:
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 30
Answer: B
Q84. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Pension
(B) Public office
(C) Right to re-entry
(D) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
Answer: D
Q85. Which of the following does not come under the ‘immovable property’ as per the T.P. Act?
(A) Sales of a ceiling fan
(B) Right to claim maintenance
(C) Right relating to lease
(D) Easementary right
Answer: A
Q86. State of U.P. v. Nawab Hussain, 1977 SCR (3) 428 relates to:
(A) Res judicata
(B) Res judicatae
(C) Constructive res judicata
(D) Deemed res judicata
Answer: C
Q87. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi and Bangalore:
(A) The suit may be instituted in Delhi only
(B) The suit may be instituted in Bangalore only
(C) The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q88. An immovable property held by ‘Y’ is situated at Bhopal and the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore. A suit to obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be instituted:
(A) At Bhopal
(B) At Indore
(C) Either at Bhopal or at Indore
(D) None of these
Answer: C
Q89. Under which Section of Income Tax Act, 1961 ‘Income of other persons included in Assessee’s total income’ are provided?
(A) 56-58
(B) 60-65
(C) 45-54
(D) All of the above
Answer: B
Q90. A period of 12th Months commencing on the 1st day of April of every year is known as:
(A) Assessment year
(B) Leap year
(C) Previous year
(D) None
Answer: A
Q91. Which section of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 deals with the validity of contracts formed through electronic means:
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 10A
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 13
Answer: B
Q92. Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may be called by the:
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: C
Q93. Specific relief ______ where the agreement is made with minor. (Fill in the blanks).
(A) Can get
(B) Cannot be given
(C) Can release
(D) Implemented with law
Answer: B
Q94. A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by:
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) The Indian Registration Act, 1908
(C) The Indian Contract Act, 1872
(D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Answer: A
Q95. Section 39 of Specific Relief Act deals with:
(A) Registration of Instrument
(B) Cancellation of Instruments
(C) Correctness of Instruments
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q96. A “dumb witness” gives his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Secondary evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Answer: A
Q97. Under the Indian Evidence Act, which of the following is not a court:
(A) Persons legally authorized to take evidence
(B) Judges
(C) Magistrates
(D) Arbitrators
Answer: D
Q98. Which of the following Section of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 defines the term ‘owner’?
(A) Section 2(30)
(B) Section 2(31)
(C) Section 2(25)
(D) Section 2(32)
Answer: A
Q99. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 an industrial concern, ordinarily, employing not less than ______ workmen owned by an individual or by an association of individuals and not being a Company, desiring to acquire land for the erection of dwelling houses for workmen employed by the concern or for the provision of amenities directly connected therewith shall, so far as concerns the Acquisition of such land, be deemed to be a company for the purpose of this part, and the references to a company in [Sections 4, 5A, 6, 7 and 50] shall be interpreted as references also to such concern. Fill in the blanks:
(A) One Hundred
(B) Two Hundred
(C) Three Hundred
(D) Four Hundred
Answer: A
Q100. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the expression “Company” means:
(A) A company as defined in Section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc);
(B) A company as defined in Section 2 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government Company referred to in clause (c);
(C) A company as defined in Section 1 of the Companies Act, 1956 [(1 of 1956) other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc);
(D) A company as defined in Section 6 of the Companies Act, 1956 [(1 of 1956), other than a Government company referred to in clause (c);
Answer: A
