AIBE 10 Previous Year Question Paper with Answers (Solved)

Practice the AIBE 10 (2017)  Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.

Q1. A warrant of arrest may be extended:
(A) To that place where the offender has committed the offence
(B) At any place within India
(C) To the place specified under the Criminal Procedure Code
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q2. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act 1948:
(A) Who has completed 17 years
(B) Who is less than 18 years of age
(C) Who is more than 15 years but less than 18 years of age
(D) None of these
Answer: C

Q3. Which is not included within the meaning of artistic work under Copyright Act:
(A) Drawing
(B) Work of architecture
(C) Work of craftsmanship
(D) Work of carpenter
Answer: D

Q4. 'A' does not fall under the clause of Memorandum of Association. 'A' here is:
(A) Subscription
(B) Director
(C) Capital
(D) Situation
Answer: B

Q5. Which of the following statement is correct:
(A) A confession made by an accused to the police officer is relevant
(B) A confession made by an accused in police custody to a magistrate is not relevant
(C) A confession made by an accused in the police custody and discovery made from the information received from confession, both confession and discovery are relevant
(D) None of the above is correct
Answer: D

Q6. PIL is criticised on the ground of:
(A) Private motive
(B) Political ends
(C) Tremendous increase in the litigation
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q7. In which of the following cases a Set Off can be claimed?
(A) 'A' owes the partnership firm of 'B' and 'C' ₹1000/-. B dies leaving 'C' surviving. 'A' sues C for a debt of ₹1500/- due in his separate character. 'C' wants to set off the debt of ₹1000/-
(B) A sues B for ₹20,000/-. 'B' wants to set off the claim for damages for breach of contract for specific performance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A

Q8. To close down a factory the occupier has to give how many days notice to the authorities:
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: B

Q9. It refers to  an authority derived from official character merely, not expressly conferred upon the individual character, but rather annexed to official position:
(A) Designation
(B) Ex-Officio
(C) Appointment
(D) Ad interim
Answer: B

Q10. Liability of drawer to compensate the drawee in case of dishonor is primarily provided under:
(A) Section 29(a)
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 30
(D) Section 31
Answer: C

Q11. What should be the difference of age under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, if a female adopts male:
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 16 years
Answer: A

Q12. Which of the following case is leading case in term of deliberate delay in filing of the suit resulting in huge losses to the complainant:
(A) Prof. Krishnaraj Goswami v. Vishwanath D. Mukashikar
(B) Pratap Narayan v. Y.P. Raheja
(C) Babulal Jain v. Subhash Jain
(D) John D'souza v. Edward Ani
Answer: A

Q13. "Dealer" includes a person who is engaged:
(A) In building bodies for attachment to chassis; or
(B) In the repair of motor vehicles; or
(C) In the business of hypothecation, leasing or hire-purchase of motor vehicle;
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q14. In which of the following cases it was said that "unless a right of appeal is clearly given by statute it does not exist":
(A) M/s Ram Narayan Pvt. Ltd. v. Trading Corporation Ltd., A.I.R. 1983 S.C. 786
(B) Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh v. Addl. Registrar, A.I.R. 1962 ALL. 439
(C) Zair Hussain Khan v. Khurshed Jain, (1906) I.L.R. 28 All 545.
(D) Smt. Gangabai v. Vijaya Kumar, A.I.R. 1974 S.C. 1126
Answer: C

Q15. 'A', a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of 'Z', who suffers under a painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z's death & intending in good faith Z's benefit performs that operation on Z with Z's consent. A has committed no offence, it is contained in:
(A) Section 88 of the IPC
(B) Section 89 of the IPC
(C) Section 90 of the IPC
(D) Section 87 of the IPC
Answer: A

Q16. Which of the following sections enables the court to cancel the bond and bail bond:
(A) 446-A
(B) 446
(C) 448
(D) 450
Answer: A

Q17. Under Section 115, in the exercise of its revision jurisdiction, a High Court can do which of the following things:
(A) To call for the record of any case which has been decided by any court, subordinate to the High Court.
(B) To vary/reverse any decree or order against which an appeal lies to the High Court.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A

Q18. A reference can be made during the pendency:
(A) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of law.
(B) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of evidence.
(C) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of fact.
(D) The subordinate court refers the case to High Court for the latter's opinion on a question of court procedure.
Answer: A

Q19. Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labour dispute on:
(A) Internal Labor Department
(B) Bureau of Labor Relations
(C) Public Sector Labor-Management Council
(D) Department of Labor
Answer: B

Q20. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the:
(A) Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(B) State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
(C) Central Government
(D) Central Government in consultation with Controller of Certifying Authority
Answer: A

Q21. Fulfilling the constitutional obligation under Article 300A, the Land Acquisition Act is the law providing for:
(A) Acquisition of land and taking over possession of land
(B) Assessment of compensation
(C) Payment of compensation
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q22. In case of a co-operative society the maximum amount on which income tax is not chargeable is:
(A) 50,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 20,000
(D) Nil
Answer: D

Q23. Minto-Morley reform is associated with which Act?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1912
(B) Indian Council Act, 1856
(C) Indian Council Act, 1908
(D) Indian Council Act, 1909
Answer: D

Q24. Pre-emption on the ground of Shafie-I-Jar was declared unconstitutional in:
(A) Bhau Ram v. Baij Nath
(B) Govind Dayal v. Inayatullah
(C) Bhagwan Das v. Chetram
(D) Ram Saran Lall v. Mst. Domini Kuer
Answer: A

Q25. Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon is an important case relating to professional misconduct due to which factor:
(A) Advocate attending the court with fire arms
(B) Not appearing before the court deliberately and intentionally
(C) Suppression of material facts with intention to harass poor persons
(D) Defrauding the client by exploiting the client's illiteracy
Answer: D

Q26. Which case is leading case on arrest:
(A) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
(B) State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q27. Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined without proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to appropriate laboratory for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within..... days.
(A) 30 days
(B) 40 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days
Answer: C

Q28. Filing with the court, to object owns or another's imprisonment is called?
(A) Writ of Quo Warranto
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Prohibition
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q29. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes:
(A) Process of Conciliation
(B) Process of Arbitration
(C) Enforcement of Foreign Awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
(D) All the above
Answer: A

Q30. The various words used to denote mens rea under the IPC and are defined in the code itself are:
(A) Voluntarily, dishonestly, fraudulently and reason to believe
(B) Corruptly and want only
(C) Malignantly and maliciously
(D) Rashly and negligently
Answer: A

Q31. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 30
Answer: B

Q32. Under Section 25 of the Land Acquisition Act, the amount of compensation awarded by the court:
(A) Shall not be less than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
(B) Shall not be equal to the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
(C) Shall not be more than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
(D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q33. Which of the following sections deals with the provisions relating to maximum period for which an under trial prisoner can be detained:
(A) 436
(B) 436-A
(C) 437-A
(D) 437
Answer: B

Q34. A Hindu's widow, if there are more than one, shall take:
(A) One share each
(B) One share for all the widows
(C) One share each to the maximum of two shares, if there are more than two widows
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q35. The Right of Equality before the law under Article 14, is subject to the restriction of:
(A) Public order and morality
(B) Reasonable classification
(C) Reasonable restriction
(D) Reasonable situations
Answer: B

Q36. In joint trail, the evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been discussed by the Supreme Court in:
(A) Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.
(B) State of U.P. v. Deoman Upadhyay
(C) Ram Bharose v. State of U.P.
(D) Rameshwar v. State of Rajasthan
Answer: A

Q37. Under Section 114, a person can apply for review of judgment when:
(A) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal is allowed
(B) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is allowed
(C) He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a court of small causes
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q38. The objective of the EU Directive on mediation is:
(A) Reducing back logs of cases at the courts in the member states
(B) Dividing the cases between all dispute resolution methods
(C) Economical reasons in times of crisis, thus ensuring that mediators will have a proper income
(D) Ensuring better access to alternative dispute resolution in cross border commercial conflicts
Answer: D

Q39. Under Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, the admission of which of the following person is not admissible against the other:
(A) One of the plaintiffs
(B) One of the defendants
(C) Agents of the parties
(D) Statement of the third party
Answer: B

Q40. Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that:
(A) An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adopted by any traders or service provider
(B) The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defect
(C) A trader or the service provider as the case may be has charged from the goods or for the services mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
(D) All the above
Answer: D

Q41. 'A' sells a field to 'B'. There is a right of way over the field of which A has direct personal knowledge but which he conceals from 'B':
(A) B has the right to rescind the contract
(B) B cannot rescind the contract
(C) A has the right to rescind the contract
(D) A is not legally liable
Answer: A

Q42. In a written statement, the defendant can claim:
(A) Set off
(B) Counter claim
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q43. This section was enacted to meet the cases of dowry deaths. It is:
(A) Section 366A of IPC
(B) Section 477A of IPC
(C) Section 498A of IPC
(D) Section 489A of IPC
Answer: C

Q44. An appeal to the high court against the order of ITAT should be filed within:
(A) 45 days when the order is communicated
(B) 60 days when the order is communicated
(C) 90 days when the order is communicated
(D) 120 days when the order is communicated
Answer: B

Q45. What is the maximum number of witness which can be produced in a case:
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) No limit
Answer: D

Q46. When can the Supreme Court refuse to grant remedy under Article 32:
(A) Delay
(B) Malicious petition
(C) Frivolous petition
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q47. Under Order 33, an indigent is allowed to prosecute any suit, provided he satisfied certain conditions. Which of the following is not such a condition?
(A) He is not possessed of sufficient means to enable him to pay the fees prescribed for the plaint in such suit
(B) He is not entitled to property worth 1,000/-
(C) He has no sufficient means for his livelihood
(D) He may present the application for permission to sue as an indigent either himself or through an authorized agent
Answer: B

Q48. Under which Supreme Court judgment, action of the President to summon, prorogue and dissolve either of the houses of the parliament, shall be unconstitutional without the advice of Council of Ministers:
(A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(B) Anand N. v. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 S.C. 657
(C) Rao v. Indira Gandhi, A.I.R. 1971 S.C. 1002
(D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q49. The term sabbatical is connected with:
(A) paid leave for study
(B) Paternity leave
(C) Maternity leave
(D) Quarantine leave
Answer: A

Q50. What is the Special Constitutional Position of Jammu and Kashmir?
(A) It is above Indian constitution
(B) Indian laws are not applicable
(C) It has its own constitution
(D) It is not the integral parts of Indian Union
Answer: C

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