Practice the AIBE 16 (2021) Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.....petition in which a decree of restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between the parties of marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of the decree.
(A) Does not permit any party to that
(B) Does not permit the party against whom the
(C) Does permit any party to that
(D) Does permit any person related to either party to that
Answer: (C)
Q2. The commission of offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are
(A) Cognizable and bailable
(B) Non cognizable and non-bailable
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable
(D) Non cognizable and bailable
Answer: (C)
Q3. An arbitration proceeding is a:
(A) Judicial proceeding
(B) Quasi-judicial proceeding
(C) Administrative proceeding
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q4. What is ad hoc arbitration?
(A) It is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves, with rules created solely, for that specific case
(B) Parties make their own arrangement with respect to all aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
(C) The seat of arbitration, the language, and the scope and issues to be resolved by means of arbitration
(D) (A), (B) (C)
Answer: (D)
Q5. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code define the 'Mesne Profit'?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Answer: (D)
Q6. How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?
(A) Permissive presumptions or presumptions of facts
(B) Compelling presumptions or presumptions of law (rebuttable presumptions)
(C) Irrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive presumptions
(D) All of them
Answer: (D)
Q7. What is the leading decision in the case of Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India?
(A) Right to hearing
(B) Separation of powers
(C) Delegated legislation
(D) Rule of evidence
Answer: (A)
Q8. Advocate's Act 1961 came into force on
(A) 19th May, 1961
(B) 19th April, 1961
(C) 1st May, 1961
(D) 19th January, 1961
Answer: (A)
Q9. A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the course of employment. His family members may claim compensation under
(A) The Motor Vehicles Act
(B) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Either under (a) or under (b)
Answer: (D)
Q10. 'Casting Couch' in Bollywood, the Indian Film Industry, is an example of
(A) Sexual assault
(B) Sexual harassment
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q11. According to Section 2 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 the term motor cab means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than
(A) 5 passengers including the driver
(B) 6 passengers including the driver
(C) 5 passengers excluding the driver
(D) 6 passengers excluding the driver
Answer: (D)
Q12. The National Commission of Consumer Protection is composed of
(A) 7 members
(B) 5 members
(C) 8 members
(D) 6 members
Answer: (B)
Q13. Which of the following of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with "amount of maintenance"?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 22
(C) Section 23
(D) Section 24
Answer: (C)
Q14. In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all made an attempt to look into the question regarding the extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other Hygienic conditions
(A) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(C) V. Lakshmipathy v. State of Karnataka
(D) F.K. Hussain v. Union of India
Answer: (A)
Q15. Basel Convention is associated with one of the following
(A) International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(B) Climate change
(C) Protection of Ozone layer
(D) The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous waste and their disposal
Answer: (D)
Q16. The nature of Cyber crime is
(A) Tangible
(B) Intangible
(C) Of mental violence
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q17. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 'Foreign Court' means
(A) A court situated outside India
(B) A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
(C) A court situated in India, applying foreign law
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
Q18. Misuse of mechanism of PIL means-
(A) filing PIL for protection of private interest
(B) filing PIL for oblique motive
(C) filing PIL only for publicity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q19. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?
(A) It is the non-observance of the procedural norms by the rule-making authority
(B) It may make the rule ultra vires due to non-observance of rule-making authority and hence become void
(C) It means the lacuna in the procedure of law
(D) (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
Q20. The ground of 'error of law apparent on the face of the record' is connected with which of the writ?
(A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
Answer: (D)
Q21. Under Civil Procedure Code find the incorrect match:
(A) Section 5 .......... Revenue Court
(B) Section 7 .......... Provincial Small Causes Court
(C) Section 9 .......... Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts
(D) Section 8 .......... Presidency Small Cause Courts
Answer: (C)
Q22. What is the Period of Limitation for expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific Relief Act, 1963:
(A) 6 month
(B) 10 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 18 month
Answer: (C)
Q23. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q24. Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital is dealt under
(A) Section 215 of IPC
(B) Section 216 of IPC
(C) Section 217 of IPC
(D) Section 218 of IPC
Answer: (B)
Q25. The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means
(A) There can be no crime without a guilty mind
(B) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
(C) Crime is the result of guilty mind
(D) In crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant
Answer: (A)
Q26. 'Law laid down under Section 73 of Indian Contract Act 1872 is related to which of the following cases:
(A) Hadley v. De-la-tur
(B) Robinson v. Davison
(C) Hetley v. Baxendal
(D) Dickinson v. Dads
Answer: (A)
Q27. Recovery of Specific Immovable Property may be obtained by C.P.C. within what period-
(A) Within 7 months
(B) Within 6 months
(C) Within 8 months
(D) Within 10 months
Answer: (B)
Q28. Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement under the LARR Act?
(A) LARR Authority
(B) Minister of Environment and Forests
(C) Central Government
(D) State Government
Answer: (D)
Q29. The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C. as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:
(A) Six months
(B) Two years
(C) One year
(D) Three months
Answer: (C)
Q30. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C. 1973 was removed in:
(A) 1973
(B) 1989
(C) 2001
(D) 2007
Answer: (C)
Q31. The term 'WIPO' stands for:
(A) World Investment Policy Organization
(B) World Intellectual Property Organization
(C) Wildlife Investigation and Policing Organization
(D) World Institute for Prevention of organized crime
Answer: (B)
Q32. Health and education cess is applicable to-
(A) All assessees
(B) All assessees except company
(C) Individual/HUF
(D) Company only
Answer: (A)
Q33. Contractual Liability arises, where:
(A) There is offer and acceptance only
(B) There is intention to create legal relation
(C) There is loss to one party
(D) The loss of one party is the gain of other party
Answer: (B)
Q34. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:
(A) Directory
(B) Mandatory
(C) None-Mandatory
(D) Discretionary
Answer: (A)
Q35. Constructive res-judicata is contained in which of the following?
(A) Explanation III to Section 11
(B) Explanation IV to Section 11
(C) Explanation VI to Section 11
(D) Explanation VIII to Section 11
Answer: (B)
Q36. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by Supreme Court in
(A) NALSA v. Union of India
(B) Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi
(C) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
(D) Suresh Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
Answer: (D)
Q37. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 8
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 10
Answer: (B)
Q38. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following type of conduct would be material
(A) Change of life
(B) Evasion of justice
(C) Fear, trembling
(D) All of them
Answer: (D)
Q39. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?
(A) Clause (1)(E)
(B) Clause (1)(D)
(C) Clause (1)(B)
(D) Clause (1)(C)
Answer: (A)
Q40. Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?
(A) 17
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 18
Answer: (A)
Q41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the Investigating Officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
(A) State of Karnataka v. Yarappa Reddi
(B) Mohammed Khalid v. State of West Bengal
(C) Baburam v. State of U.P.
(D) State of Rajasthan v. Om Prakash
Answer: (A)
Q42. If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Fourteen days
(C) Twenty days
(D) Thirty days
Answer: (B)
Q43. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given under section of the Advocate's Act, 1961
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 35
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Q44. Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging professional negligence?
(A) 303A
(B) 304A
(C) 302
(D) 305
Answer: (B)
Q45. A offers to bribe B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B's official functions. B accepts the bribe.
(A) A has abetted the offence defined in Section 160, IPC
(B) A has abetted the offence defined in Section 161, IPC
(C) A has abetted the offence defined in Section 162, IPC
(D) A has abetted the offence defined in Section 163, IPC
Answer: (B)
Q46. When Perpetual injunction may be granted-
(A) Where the defendant is trustee of the Property for the plaintiff
(B) Where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage
(C) Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q47. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law and ensure that the public justice system is enabled to function at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional ethics by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even a minor violation/misconduct militates against the fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said in
(A) Hikmat Ali Khan v. Ishwar Prasad Arya, (1997) 3 SCC 131
(B) O.P. Sharma v. High Court of Punjab and Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86
(C) L.D. Jaikwal v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405
(D) Shamsher Singh Bedi v. High Court of Punjab and Haryana, (1996) 7 SCC 99
Answer: (B)
Q48. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provision relating to
(A) Incorporation of company
(B) Formation of companies with charitable objects, etc.
(C) Effect of registration
(D) Effect of memorandum and articles
Answer: (B)
Q49. The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to the registrar within a period of incorporation
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
Answer: (A)
Q50. Cyber law deals with
(A) All activities concerning the internet
(B) IPR
(C) E-commerce
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
