Practice the AIBE 20 (2025) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowed while computing income from house property.
Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at Rs. 2,00,000 subject to conditions.
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (D)
Q52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son.
Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
Q53. As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term?
(A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
(B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
(C) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
(D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
Answer: (C)
Q54. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
(A) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' Rs. 5,000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last month.
(B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.
(C) A promise to subscribe Rs. 1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
(D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
Answer: (A), (B)
Q55. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of?
(A) Ultra Vires
(B) Excessive Delegation
(C) Conditional Legislation
(D) Separation of Powers
Answer: (B)
Q56. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree?
(A) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.
(B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud.
(C) The fraud relates to the social status of the respondent's family.
(D) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling centre.
Answer: (B)
Q57. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) On the date of appointment of arbitrator.
(B) On the date the arbitration agreement is signed.
(C) On the date the request for reference is received by the respondent.
(D) On the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.
Answer: (C)
Q58. Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air?
(A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598.
(B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746.
(C) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596.
(D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545.
Answer: (A)
Q59. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of "Absolute Liability"?
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086.
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530.
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388.
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 374.
Answer: (A)
Q60. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
(A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346.
(B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332.
(C) J. Mohapatra and Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103.
(D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463.
Answer: (C)
Q61. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit:
I. has been finally decided.
II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (C)
Q62. Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that:
I. judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court.
II. judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property.
III. decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account.
IV. judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (C)
Q63. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant:
I. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served.
II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing.
III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim.
IV. without notice being served on the opposite party.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I and II
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (A)
Q64. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing.
(B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
(C) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses.
(D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed.
Answer: (B)
Q65. Which Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 46
Answer: (B)
Q66. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) A contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible.
(B) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023 can be proved.
(C) A enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by misrepresentations of B as to their value. This fact may be proved.
(D) A orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.
Answer: (B)
Q67. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the 'degrees of prohibited relationship' if:
I. one is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
II. one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood.
III. one was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's or grandmother's brother of the other.
IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I, II and IV
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (D)
Q68. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment?
(A) Article 48A
(B) Article 39A
(C) Article 51A(g)
(D) Article 51A(h)
Answer: (C)
Q69. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the:
I. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.
II. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years.
IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year.
Select the correct answer.
(A) III and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
Q70. As per the Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect of any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes:
I. telecom service providers.
II. search engines.
III. cyber cafes.
IV. online-auction sites.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (D)
Q71. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable?
(A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
(B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.
(C) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9.
(D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.
Answer: (B)
Q72. Under Section 9A of the Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of:
(A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.
(B) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.
(C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.
(D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.
Answer: (C)
Q73. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 36
(C) Section 37
(D) Section 38
Answer: (B)
Q74. Match List I (General Defences in 'Tort') with List II (Leading Cases), and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
i. Act of God
ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria)
iii. Statutory Authority
iv. Necessity
List II
- Vaughan v. Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H & N 679
- Kirk v. Gregory, (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55
- Nichols v. Marsland, (1876) 2 Ex. D. 1
- Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club, (1933) 1 KB 205
Codes:
(A) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
(B) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
(C) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
(D) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
Answer: (C)
Q75. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:
(A) A Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(B) A Chairperson and five other members.
(C) A Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(D) A Chairperson and ten other members.
Answer: (C)
Q76. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
(A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956.
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461.
(C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845.
(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789.
Answer: (C)
Q77. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 251
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 255
Answer: (C)
Q78. In which of the following judgment/s was the issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the Supreme Court of India?
I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. AIR 1963 SC 1295.
II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568).
III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1.
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300).
Select the correct answer—
(A) I, III and IV
(B) II and III
(C) Only III
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (D)
Q79. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India?
(A) Executive action of the Union of India.
(B) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation.
(C) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament.
(D) Legislative enactment by Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India.
Answer: (D)
Q80. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly. Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as judicial precedent?
(A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment.
(B) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment.
(C) No, because it is not pronounced in open court.
(D) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court.
Answer: (A)
Q81. In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, i.e., the High Court, has restrained publication of any news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing the order?
(A) Power to issue the writ of mandamus.
(B) Power to issue the writ of prohibition.
(C) Inherent power.
(D) Residuary power.
Answer: (*)
Q82. The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right given by the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 19(1)(b), Constitution of India.
(B) Right to Information Act, 2005.
(C) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India.
(D) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively.
Answer: (C)
Q83. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of 'Validation of certain Acts & Regulations'?
(A) Schedule IX
(B) Schedule III
(C) Schedule V
(D) Schedule X
Answer: (A)
Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India:
I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court.
II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted.
III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I is false.
(B) II is false.
(C) III is false.
(D) All Statements are true.
Answer: (D)
Q85. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?
(A) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.
(B) Lower Judiciary has to complain about its contempt to the Supreme Court of India.
(C) Lower Judiciary can itself punish the contemnor for having caused its contempt.
(D) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls.
Answer: (D)
Q86. The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for:
(A) Threatening judges and use of abusive language during proceedings.
(B) Filing false affidavits and making reckless allegations against judges.
(C) Interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness.
(D) Circulating scandalous pamphlets against a sitting Chief Justice.
Answer: (C)
Q87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages
ii. Punishment of bigamy
iii. Judicial separation
iv. Voidable marriages
List II
- Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Codes:
(A) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
(B) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(C) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
(D) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
Answer: (C)
Q88. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties?
(A) The creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt.
(B) The debtor's family becomes liable for the unpaid amount.
(C) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution.
(D) The entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached.
Answer: (C)
Q89. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff?
(A) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff.
(B) When the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff.
(C) When the property is held as lessee or sub-tenant of the plaintiff.
(D) When the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff.
Answer: (A)
Q90. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States.
Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to "High Court" in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals.
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
(B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
(D) Both the Statements are true.
Answer: (D)
Q91. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A, B)
Q92. A company, registered under the Companies Act, 2013, files a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance?
(A) Rs. 25,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 75,000
(D) Rs. 1,00,000
Answer: (B)
Q93. If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice?
(A) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term.
(B) By applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences.
(C) By leaving the choice of punishment to the prosecuting authority.
(D) By suspending the punishment until further clarification is made.
Answer: (A)
Q94. Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is:
(A) Valid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice.
(B) Invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months.
(C) Valid, since the adolescent is given a full day of rest every week.
(D) Invalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment.
Answer: (B)
Q95. Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
(A) A person who purchases a refrigerator on instalments for home use.
(B) A person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use.
(C) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose.
(D) A person who uses furniture bought by a relative with the latter's consent.
Answer: (C)
Q96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death.
Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
Q97. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.
Statement: Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents.
Conclusions:
I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence.
II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent's conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents.
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Answer: (C)
Q98. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving licence?
(A) The place where the applicant has family ancestral property.
(B) The place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year.
(C) The place where the applicant votes in local body elections.
(D) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.
Answer: (D)
Q99. If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?
(A) Ten years of imprisonment.
(B) Twenty years of imprisonment.
(C) Forty years of imprisonment.
(D) Fifty years of imprisonment.
Answer: (B)
Q100. According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?
(A) Voluntary resignation from the post by the employee.
(B) Dismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work.
(C) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease.
(D) Transfer of the employee to another department within the same organization.
Answer: (C)
