Practice the AIBE 16 (2021) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by:
(A) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
(B) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(C) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
(D) The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986
Answer: (A)
Q52. The minimum amount of compensation payable under Employees Compensation Act, 1923 in case of total permanent disablement of a railway servant due to accident is Rs.
(A) Rs. 80,000
(B) Rs. 90,000
(C) Rs. 1,20,000
(D) Rs. 1,40,000
Answer: (C)
Q53. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo. The appropriate intellectual property protection is:
(A) Copy rights
(B) Trade mark
(C) Patent
(D) Industrial designs
Answer: (B)
Q54. The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is
(A) Section 20
(B) Section 21
(C) Section 22
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q55. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, who shall record the information of a rape being given by a rape victim?
(A) Officer in-charge of the police station
(B) Deputy Superintendent of Police
(C) Officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
(D) Woman police officer of any Woman officer
Answer: (D)
Q56. Under the provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(A) Summons can be oral
(B) Summons cannot be served on corporate entities
(C) Summons are either for appearance or for producing documents/thing
(D) Summons can be served to servants in case the person on whose name summons are made cannot be found
Answer: (C)
Q57. Every person who is a member of a defence service or hold at any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Council of Minister
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (B)
Q58. Which of the following statement/statements is/are false for the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
I. It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu.
II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to be Hindu.
III. A person converted who converted to another religion needs to follow local ritual custom for converting back to Hinduism.
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) II only
(D) I and III
Answer: (C)
Q59. Provision for settlement of dispute by conciliation has been provided under Section ________ of Civil Procedure Code.
(A) 91
(B) 89
(C) 51
(D) 151
Answer: (B)
Q60. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on
(A) 6th October, 1860
(B) 1st March, 1974
(C) 15th March, 1872
(D) 1st September, 1872
Answer: (D)
Q61. According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution:
I. There shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
II. The Public Service Commission for the Union, if requested to do by the Governor of a State may, with the approval of the President, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) I and II
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Q62. Any private person may arrest any person who
(A) Commits non-bailable offence in his presence.
(B) Commits non-bailable offence and cognizable offence in his presence.
(C) Commits compoundable offence in his presence.
(D) Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender.
Answer: (D)
Q63. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?
(A) 6 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 12 years
(D) Until executed or cancelled
Answer: (D)
Q64. Rate of additional Depreciation will be ________ under Section 32-Indian Income Tax Act.
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 15%
(D) 30%
Answer: (B)
Q65. Amount of deduction under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act from annual value is
(A) 1/2 of Annual Value
(B) 1/3 of Annual Value
(C) 3/10 of Annual Value
(D) 17/10 of Annual Value
Answer: (C)
Q66. The test of reasonableness is not wholly ________ test and its contours are fairly indicated by constitution.
(A) Subjective
(B) Objective
(C) Descriptive
(D) Summative
Answer: (A)
Q67. The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India is left to ________ under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
(A) President
(B) Council of ministers
(C) House of people
(D) Parliament
Answer: (D)
Q68. Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is decided in:
(A) Dredwell v. Atkinson
(B) Motilal v. Poole
(C) Peruraman All Mills v. State of Kerala
(D) Kedar Nath v. Gauri Mohamad
Answer: (C)
Q69. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the Indian Contract Act?
(A) Section 73
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 2(d)
(D) Section 56
Answer: (D)
Q70. Schedule III of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 deals with
(A) Age factor for calculating the amount of compensation
(B) List of persons who are included in the definition of 'Employee'
(C) List of occupational diseases
(D) List of injuries deemed to Result in Permanent Total Disablement
Answer: (B)
Q71. Administrative law broadly categorised into:
(A) Judicial
(B) Extra-judicial
(C) Either A and B
(D) Both A and B
Answer: (D)
Q72. Section 66, of Indian Evidence Act lays down:
(A) A notice must be given by secondary evidence can be received under Section 65(a), Indian Evidence Act
(B) Notice to produce a document must be in writing
(C) Order XI, Rule 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
Q73. Maxim 'Res Ipsa Loquitur' means:
(A) The thing speaks for itself
(B) Where there is right there is remedy
(C) Where there is remedy there is right
(D) Where there is no fault there is no remedy
Answer: (A)
Q74. The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
(A) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(B) Justice Altamas Kabir
(C) Justice J.S. Verma
(D) Justice A.S. Anand
Answer: (C)
Q75. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code, non-cognizable offences are:
(A) Public wrongs
(B) Private wrongs
(C) Both public and private wrongs
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Q76. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on grounds of ________ would be violative of Article 15(1).
(A) Sex
(B) Remuneration
(C) Place of birth
(D) Religion
Answer: (A)
Q77. The 'Objective Resolution' adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947 was drafted by whom?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) B.N. Rao
Answer: (A)
Q78. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Morarji Desai
Answer: (D)
Q79. When the accused states, 'I will produce the share which I received in such and such robbery' which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act?
I. An admission that there was a robbery
II. An admission that the accused took part in it
III. An admission that he got part of the property
IV. A statement as to where the property is
(A) I, II and III
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) All of above
Answer: (A)
Q80. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in:
(A) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(B) Holmes v. Ashford
(C) Rylands v. Fletcher
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Q81. The Rule of Last opportunity was laid down in
(A) Davies Vs Mann
(B) State of A.P. Vs Ranganna
(C) Nugent Vs Smith
(D) Kalawati Vs State of HP
Answer: (A)
Q82. In which of the following case was it held that 'the rights conferred under Section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no difference'?
(A) Surenderabal v. Soppiar
(B) Mukesh Pali v. Bharti Teli
(C) Sesi Ammal v. Taiyu Ammal
(D) Laxmi v. Krishna
Answer: (C)
Q83. A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV, Rules 1 in
(A) Single copy
(B) Duplicate
(C) Triplicate
(D) No fixed rule
Answer: (B)
Q84. Omission to give notice under Order XXI, Rule 22 will
(A) Render the execution null and void
(B) Render the execution irregular
(C) Render the execution voidable
(D) Not affect the execution
Answer: (A)
Q85. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person concerned, under Section 82 CPC, execution, shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of
(A) 3 months from the date of decree
(B) 6 months from the date of decree
(C) 1 year from the date of decree
(D) 2 years from the date of decree
Answer: (A)
Q86. On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation?
(A) 18th May, 1955
(B) 17th June, 1955
(C) 22nd May, 1955
(D) 18th June, 1955
Answer: (A)
Q87. Which of the following properties will Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern?
I. Tarwad
II. Tavazhi
III. Kutumba
IV. Kavaru
V. Illom
(A) I, III and V
(B) II, IV and V
(C) I and II
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
Q88. The maximum limit of the members of the State Bar Council is:
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Q89. Specific Relief Act 1963 contains-
(A) 6 Chapters and 40 Sections
(B) 7 Chapters and 42 Sections
(C) 8 Chapters and 43 Sections
(D) 8 Chapters and 44 Sections
Answer: (D)
Q90. The phrase 'file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests' means-
(A) Filing PIL of protection of only public interest
(B) Filing PIL for protection of both public and private interest
(C) Filing PIL for protection of only private interest
(D) Filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually seeking protection of private interest
Answer: (D)
Q91. Filing of frivolous PILs results in-
(A) Increasing backlog of cases
(B) Wastage of resources
(C) Lesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q92. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X, is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane?
(A) Z has not committed any offence as per Section 98 of IPC and same right of private defence to X if Z is mad
(B) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and no right of private defence to X
(C) Z has committed an offence for not using his mind
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Q93. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 21A
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 22A
Answer: (C)
Q94. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has been inserted in the Constitution by ________.
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 40th Amendment Act
(D) 51st Amendment Act
Answer: (A)
Q95. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed/amended by Section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?
(A) Section 4
(B) Section 5
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 7
Answer: (B)
Q96. As per Section 53 of IPC, the word 'injury' denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person's
(A) Body
(B) Mind
(C) Reputation
(D) All above
Answer: (D)
Q97. Which of the following cases can be cured under Section 465 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Entertaining of complaint without complying with Section 195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C.
(B) The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case
(C) The examination of witness in absence of the accused
(D) Non compliance with 235(2)
Answer: (B)
Q98. Which of the following statements hold true for de nova trials?
(A) Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground for calling de nova trials
(B) A de nova trial should be the last resort
(C) The court originally trying the case can order de nova trial
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Q99. In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for public-private partnership projects, consent of how many affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?
(A) 60%
(B) 70%
(C) 80%
(D) 90%
Answer: (B)
Q100. A company which is not a domestic company will pay income tax at the rate of:
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 20%
Answer: (C)
