Practice the AIBE 12 (2018) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances:
(A) When the State Legislature is not in session
(B) During the course of legislature session
(C) On the recommendation of the state cabinet
(D) With the permission of the union government
Answer: A
Q52. A person arrested should not be detained more than:
(A) 48 hours
(B) 24 hours
(C) 14 days
(D) 90 days
Answer: B
Q53. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance:
(A) Son who is a minor
(B) Daughter who is not married
(C) Grand parents
(D) An illegitimate son
Answer: D
Q54. In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on:
(A) The Petitioner
(B) The respondents
(C) The State Government
(D) The Court
Answer: A
Q55. In which of the following of Section 59 Cr.P.C. the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?
(A) On his own bond
(B) On bail
(C) Under special order of the Magistrate
(D) All of them
Answer: D
Q56. Financial Relations between the State and Centre are defined in Constitution:
(A) Between Article 245-255
(B) Between Article 256-263
(C) Between Article 264-293
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q57. Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s 124 (A) of IPC for:
(A) Calling Hartal
(B) Breaching public peace and tranquility
(C) Sedition and disaffection to the government
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q58. Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/s 109 and 110 of Cr.P.C. from:
(A) Habitual offenders
(B) White collar criminals
(C) Jail inmates
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q59. Dayabhaga school presumes that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property".
(A) This statement is correct
(B) This presumption is under Mitakshara school
(C) This statement is incorrect
(D) None of these
Answer: C
Q60. Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 is:
(A) Dispute between employers and employers
(B) Dispute between employers and workman
(C) Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non-employment
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q61. English case Ryland v. Fletcher laid down a very important rule:
(A) Absolute liability
(B) Vicarious liability
(C) Indirect liability
(D) Financial liability
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q62. Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:
(A) The parties must be competent to contract
(B) There must be mental consent
(C) There must be a transfer of property
(D) There must be an agreement to sell
Answer: D
Q63. "Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law". In which case Supreme Court made this remark:
(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(C) D.K. Basu v. State of Bengal
(D) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
Answer: C
Q64. A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is:
(A) 3 year's from the date of sentencing the judgment
(B) 3 year's from the date of release from imprisonment
(C) 3 year's from the date of commencing the imprisonment
(D) 1 year when the imprisonment ends
Answer: D
Q65. Rule of Law is defined by:
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) Sir John Salmond
(C) A.V. Dicey
(D) Prof. Aristotle
Answer: C
Q66. What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR:
(A) Within 24 hours
(B) Within 48 hours
(C) Within 14 days of the offence
(D) No time limit is specified
Answer: D
Q67. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
(A) They are a special law within Section 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) They must take precedence over Section 114 or Order 47
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: C
Q68. An Appeal Against Order Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in:
(A) The High Court
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Central Government
(D) Not Appealable
Answer: B
Q69. Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct:
(A) Ethics Committee
(B) Professional Development Committee
(C) Disciplinary Committee
(D) High Court
Answer: C
Q70. Which section of Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deal with Anticipatory breach of contract:
(A) Section 50
(B) Section 65
(C) Section 60
(D) Section 70
Answer: C
Q71. Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright Act by invoking the provisions:
(A) Section 13-16
(B) Section 17-27
(C) Section 63-70
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q72. Which section of Indian Registration Act, 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties:
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 17
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q73. State Government's power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 under Section:
(A) 67 of MV Act, 1988
(B) 68 of MV Act, 1988
(C) 69 of MV Act, 1988
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q74. Doctrine of "LIS PENDENS" is given under which section of the transfer of property Act:
(A) 41
(B) 52
(C) 53
(D) 53A
Answer: B
Q75. Which of the following statement is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
(A) It is a true law
(B) It has vertical structure
(C) It has well established institutes of governance
(D) It has formal law enforcing agencies
Answer: D
Q76. Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse:
(A) This statement is true under Sunni law
(B) This statement is not true
(C) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
(D) Deferred is mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse
Answer: A
Q77. Dying declaration must be made by:
(A) The dying person in hospital
(B) The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
(C) The deceased before death
(D) Nearest relative of the deceased
Answer: C
Q78. Judgment should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court:
(A) By delivering the whole of the judgment
(B) By reading out the whole of the judgment
(C) By reading out the operative part of the judgment
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q79. Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution:
(A) Section 242 Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 264 Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 237 Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 235 Cr.P.C.
Answer: A
Q80. Abetting the Commission of suicide is given under:
(A) Section 9 of IPC
(B) Section 8 of IPC
(C) Section 7 of IPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q81. Control over subordinate courts shall be vested in the:
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor
Answer: A
Q82. Section 34 of the CPC provides:
(A) The Payment of fine imposed by the court
(B) Payment of compensation to the other party
(C) Payment of interest
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q83. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called:
(A) Coercive question
(B) Confusing question
(C) Misleading question
(D) Rhetoric Question
Answer: * (Question rejected by Monitoring Committee)
Q84. According to clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of Section 145 of the Code of Civil Procedure a surety:
(A) May render himself personally liable
(B) He may only give a charge upon his property
(C) He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
(D) All of these
Answer: D
Q85. Section 49 of Factories Act, 1947 explains about:
(A) Canteen
(B) Creche
(C) Welfare officer
(D) Rest room
Answer: C
Q86. The word “case” used in Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure is of wide import and:
(A) It means any state of facts judicially considered
(B) It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a Civil Court
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: B
Q87. “A” finds in a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to “B” and appropriates to his own use. “A” is guilty of:
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Cheating
(C) Criminal misappropriation
(D) Theft
Answer: C
Q88. The word “is not possessed of sufficient means” in Order 33 Rule 1 refer:
(A) To dower debt due by the petitioner's husband
(B) To property over which petitioner has actual control
(C) To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
(D) None of these
Answer: D
Q89. Section 22B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to:
(A) Abolish Lok Adalat
(B) Works of Lok Adalat
(C) Powers of Lok Adalat or permanent Lok Adalat
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q90. Indian Evidence Act was enacted in:
(A) 1972
(B) 1872
(C) 1955
(D) 1986
Answer: B
Q91. Which is the correct state statement with regard to professional ethics of a lawyer:
(A) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
(B) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
(C) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q92. Droit Administration is a system of Administration:
(A) French system
(B) British system
(C) American System
(D) Irish System
Answer: A
Q93. Which Act is covering the Cyber crimes:
(A) Indian Telecommunication Act
(B) Indian Penal Code
(C) Indian Evidence Act
(D) Information Technology Act
Answer: D
Q94. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to:
(A) Violate legal right of the victim
(B) Cause damage to the victim
(C) Obtain benefit for the combiners
(D) Perfect the interest of combiners
Answer: A
Q95. Cancellation of Instrument is mentioned in:
(A) Sections 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
(B) Section 26 of Specific Relief Act
(C) Sections 31-33 of Specific Relief Act
(D) Sections 36-42 of Specific Relief Act
Answer: C
Q96. Unfair labour practice by the employers:
(A) Victimization
(B) False implication in criminal case
(C) Untrue allegations of absence without leave
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q97. The Costal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in the year:
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
(C) 1991
(D) 1997
Answer: C
Q98. Who is lawful guardian:
(A) A person who in law represents the Minor
(B) A person who has been appointed by the Court
(C) A person who has been authorized to represent an unmarried daughter
(D) All the above
Answer: D
Q99. Under the Companies Act every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least:
(A) 100 shares
(B) 20 shares
(C) 10 shares
(D) 1 share
Answer: D
Q100. GST came into force from:
(A) 1st January, 2017
(B) 1st April, 2017
(C) 1st July, 2017
(D) 1st August, 2017
Answer: C
