Practice the AIBE 11 (2017) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as:
(A) Includes a river but not a water course
(B) Includes a water course but not a river
(C) Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
(D) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Answer: D
Q52. Cheque bouncing cases charged under Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act is trialed by:
(A) Bank Tribunal
(B) Consumer Forum
(C) Magistrate Court
(D) Sessions Court
Answer: C
Q53. Which of the following is not a civil nature:
(A) Right to take out procession
(B) Right to Worship in a temple
(C) Right to Caste and Religion
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q54. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies:
(A) The suit is liable to be dismissed
(B) The suit is liable to be stayed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q55. Under Section 16, CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a Court whose local jurisdiction:
(A) Where the property is situated
(B) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q56. Pleading means:
(A) Plaint and written statement
(B) Plaint only
(C) Written statement
(D) Oral statement by the pleader
Answer: A
Q57. On failure to file a written statement, under Order VIII Rule 10 of CPC the Court may:
(A) Pass any other order
(B) Order for striking off the decree
(C) May pronounce the judgment at once
(D) Any of the above
Answer: D
Q58. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government:
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 8
Answer: B
Q59. The Patent Act became a law in:
(A) 1970
(B) 1975
(C) 1996
(D) 1966
Answer: A
Q60. Which one is not a fundamental right?
(A) Right to Freedom of Assembly
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
Answer: B
Q61. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that:
(A) Confiscation of Passport was correct
(B) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
(C) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19(1)(a) but the confiscation of passport is not in accordance to the law
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Q62. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement:
(A) In the interest of general public
(B) In the interest of political leaders
(C) In the interest of women safety
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Q63. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of Constitution:
(A) A company
(B) A corporation
(C) Only citizens
(D) Citizens and aliens
Answer: C
Q64. Clause (3) of Article 20(i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be:
(A) An accused
(B) A witness
(C) A witness against himself
(D) Hostile witness
Answer: C
Q65. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India is popularly known as:
(A) Judges Transfer case
(B) Illegal Detention case
(C) Mandal Commission
(D) Constitutional case
Answer: C
Q66. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted:
(A) NK Chand v. State of Haryana
(B) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(C) P.V. Narasimha Rao v. Union of India
(D) Ratlam Municipal Council v. Vardhichand
Answer: B
Q67. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is:
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 2
Answer: C
Q68. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives:
(A) Certification on incorporation
(B) Letter of intent
(C) Occupation certificate
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q69. Which of the following is not an essential of a contract of guarantee:
(A) Concurrence of three parties
(B) Surety's distinct promise to be answerable
(C) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
(D) Existence of only one contract
Answer: D
Q70. The term 'Agent' is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section:
(A) 180 of the Act
(B) 181 of the Act
(C) 182 of the Act
(D) 183 of the Act
Answer: C
Q71. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business:
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer: B
Q72. A person who gives the guarantee is called:
(A) Bailee
(B) Creditor
(C) Debtor
(D) Surety
Answer: D
Q73. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods:
(A) Lien
(B) Stoppage in transit
(C) Right of resale
(D) To ascertain price
Answer: D
Q74. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides:
(A) Injunctions
(B) Court's discretion on specific performance
(C) Cancellation of instruments
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q75. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under:
(A) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32 Constitution
(B) Under Section 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q76. Supreme Court in SP Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 149, decided:
(A) Free Legal Aid
(B) Bonded labours
(C) Judges Transfer
(D) Illegal detention
Answer: C
Q77. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamlanath case evolved:
(A) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
(B) Public Trust doctrine
(C) Separation of power doctrine
(D) Public Interest doctrine
Answer: B
Q78. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan case is related to:
(A) Sexual harassment at workplace
(B) Protection of civil rights
(C) Uniform civil code
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q79. Courts power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act:
(A) Under Section 20
(B) Under Section 21
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q80. Proving of handwriting is provided in Indian Evidence Act:
(A) By the opinion of Experts
(B) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
(C) After police verification
(D) (A) and (B)
Answer: D
Q81. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides that:
(A) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
(B) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
(C) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: D
Q82. The term 'Evidence' means and includes:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q83. Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Mark Act 1999 defines the meaning of:
(A) Licence
(B) Trade Mark
(C) Registration
(D) Cancellation
Answer: B
Q84. Outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC:
(A) Section 276(a)
(B) Section 376(b)
(C) Section 354
(D) Section 498
Answer: C
Q85. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of:
(A) House breaking
(B) Dishonest misappropriation property
(C) Forgery
(D) Forgery with cheating
Answer: C
Q86. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under:
(A) Section 503 to 506
(B) Section 509 to 516
(C) Section 319 to 329
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q87. The term Tort is a:
(A) Latin Word
(B) French Word
(C) English Word
(D) Italian Word
Answer: A
Q88. In Tort, what is vicarious liability?
(A) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
(B) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
(C) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q89. Under Section 2(1)(f) of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, defect is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcoming in..... in relation to the goods:
(A) Quality and Quantity
(B) Potency
(C) Purity or standard
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q90. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God:
(A) Storm and cyclone
(B) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
(C) Lightning and thunder
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q91. Income Tax Act was enacted:
(A) 1951
(B) 1961
(C) 1971
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q92. Income is defined under Section 24 of the Income Tax Act:
(A) Profits and gains
(B) Dividend
(C) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
(D) All of the above
Answer: * (Question rejected by monitoring committee)
Q93. Provision of the Section 80 of CPC are binding on:
(A) The High Court
(B) The Court of Civil Judge
(C) The District Judge
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q94. Temporary Injunction can be granted:
(A) Suo moto
(B) Ex parte
(C) Hearing both parties
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q95. Right to Appeal:
(A) Natural Right
(B) Inherent Right
(C) Statutory Right
(D) Delegated Right
Answer: C
Q96. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in:
(A) 2000
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2004
Answer: C
Q97. Which is the correct statement:
(A) There can be a will without a codicil
(B) There can be a codicil without a will
(C) Every will has a codicil
(D) A codicil precedes a will
Answer: A
Q98. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by:
(A) By two witness
(B) By two or more witness
(C) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q99. 'Iddat' under Mohammadan law refers to:
(A) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
(B) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
(C) Attain of puberty
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
Q100. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed:
(A) State Government
(B) The Central Government
(C) The Clergyman of the Church
(D) High Court judges
Answer: A
