Practice the AIBE 17 (2023) Part 2 Solved Question Paper with all 100 original multiple-choice questions and official answer key-based solutions. An excellent resource for AIBE preparation and revision.
Q51. The provision for "maintenance pendente lite" in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in:
(A) Section 22
(B) Section 23
(C) Section 24
(D) Section 25
Answer: (C)
Q52. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 Section 2, if the husband has been insane for a period of:
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 7 years
Answer: (B)
Q53. Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. Which section of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with it?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q54. Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Bigamy
(B) Degrees of Prohibited Relationship
(C) Sapinda Relationship
(D) Child marriage
Answer: (D)
Q55. Sapinda Relationship Means:
(A) 3rd generation (mother), 7th generation (father)
(B) 3rd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
(C) 3rd generation (mother), 4th generation (father)
(D) 2nd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
Answer: (B)
Q56. Which one of the following is not a ground of divorce in the Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Mental Disorder
(B) Venereal Disease in communicable form
(C) Incurable Unsound Mind
(D) Living separately for less than three months
Answer: (D)
Q57. Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which of the following enactments?
(A) Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Christian Marriage Act, 1872
(C) Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(D) Special Marriage Act, 1872
Answer: (C)
Q58. The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 deals with:
(A) Rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
(B) Effects of adoption
(C) Presumption as to the document relating to adoption
(D) Cancellation of adoption
Answer: (B)
Q59. Which of the following categories of cases will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
(A) Family Pension
(B) Petitions from riot victims
(C) Neglected Children
(D) Landlord-Tenant matter
Answer: (D)
Q60. Who is known as Father of Public Interest Litigation in India?
(A) Justice A. N. Ray
(B) Justice Y. V. Chandrachud
(C) Justice R. S. Pathak
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
Answer: (D)
Q61. Which of the following is not a real purpose of Public Interest Litigation?
(A) Vindication of the rule of law
(B) Facilitate effective access to Justice
(C) Meaningful realization of Fundamental Rights
(D) Getting famous and making wealth
Answer: (D)
Q62. In Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, ________ remerged as a basic fundamental right.
(A) Right to Speedy Justice
(B) Right to Clean Environment
(C) Right to Free Legal Aid
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q63. Which of the following writ can be issued against usurpation of public office?
(A) Writ of Mandamus
(B) Writ of Certiorari
(C) Writ of Quo Warranto
(D) Writ of Prohibition
Answer: (C)
Q64. Ridge v. Baldwin's case deals with:
(A) Corporation
(B) Natural Justice
(C) State Liability
(D) Delegated Legislation
Answer: (B)
Q65. Meaning of "Audi alteram partem":
(A) A person cannot be condemned without being heard
(B) An adjudicating authority must give a speaking order
(C) No man can be a judge in his own case
(D) No one should fear the courts
Answer: (A)
Q66. Rules made by Bar Council of India in exercising its rule making power under ________.
(A) The Advocates Act, 1951
(B) The Advocates Act, 1954
(C) The Advocates Act, 1961
(D) The Advocates Act, 1964
Answer: (C)
Q67. An advocate may, while practicing, take up teaching of Law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University, so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in the teaching of Law do not exceed ________ hours in a day.
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: (B)
Q68. In which of the following landmark case the advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had forged the court order?
(A) Pratap Narain v. Y.P. Raheja
(B) Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon
(C) Babulal Jain v. Subhash Jain
(D) Smt. P. Pankajam v. B.H. Chandrashekhar
Answer: (A)
Q69. If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of Disciplinary Committee of State Bar Council made under Section 35 of the Advocate Act or Advocate General of the State may prefer an appeal to the Bar Council of India within ________ days of the date of communication of order.
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
Answer: (C)
Q70. ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert itself into a Public Company. It can do so by altering its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association and by passing ________.
(A) Ordinary Resolution
(B) Special Resolution
(C) Board Resolution
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Q71. "Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil" is associated with:
(A) Labour Law
(B) Company Law
(C) Banking Law
(D) Service Law
Answer: (B)
Q72. Under which Section of The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an appeal to National Green Tribunal (NGT) lies?
(A) Section 4A
(B) Section 5A
(C) Section 6A
(D) Section 7A
Answer: (B)
Q73. Which one of the following Fundamental Duties relates to Environmental Protection?
(A) Article 51A(d)
(B) Article 51A(g)
(C) Article 51A(j)
(D) Article 51A(k)
Answer: (B)
Q74. Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer, made an appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal. Later Mr. A aggrieved by an order of Cyber Appellate Tribunal, may prefer an appeal:
(A) In any District Court
(B) In Higher Tribunal
(C) Only in High Court
(D) Only in Supreme Court
Answer: (C)
Q75. Mr. X, a person who is intended by Mr. Y an originator to receive the electronic record, is under the IT Act, known as ________.
(A) Intermediary
(B) Originators Agent
(C) Addressee
(D) Key Holder
Answer: (C)
Q76. The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: (D)
Q77. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer in ________ and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen.
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Devanagari Script
(D) Language specified in 8th Schedule of the Constitution
Answer: (B)
Q78. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as ________.
(A) Occupier
(B) Managing Director
(C) Chairman
(D) Manager
Answer: (A)
Q79. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ________ to carry out the prescribed duties.
(A) Safety officer
(B) Welfare Officer
(C) Development officer
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q80. Suppose road accident occurs, then being an Advocate what is the correct way of approaching the situation?
(A) FIR > Petition > Summon to Insurance Company
(B) Petition > FIR > Summon to Insurance Company
(C) Summon to Insurance Company > Petition > FIR
(D) FIR > Summon to Insurance Company > Petition
Answer: (A)
Q81. The principle of "Ubi jus ibi idem remedium" was recognized in:
(A) Winterbottom v. Wright
(B) Chapman v. Pickersgill
(C) Ashby v. White
(D) Rylands v. Fletcher
Answer: (C)
Q82. Gloucester Grammar School Case is a landmark case based on which of the following maxim?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damnum
(C) Volenti non fit injuria
(D) Audi alteram partem
Answer: (A)
Q83. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 shall have the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds ________.
(A) 1 Crore
(B) 10 Crores
(C) 50 Crores
(D) 100 Crores
Answer: (B)
Q84. Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to ________.
(A) State Commission
(B) Consumer Tribunal
(C) National Commission
(D) High Court
Answer: (A)
Q85. For an individual to be deemed to be resident in India in any previous year one of the condition is:
(A) If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year.
(B) If he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the previous year.
(C) If he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the previous year.
(D) If he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the previous year.
Answer: (A)
Q86. Mr. Kapoor purchased a residential house in January, 2021 for ₹80,00,000. He sold the house in April, 2022 for ₹94,00,000. In this case the gain of ₹14,00,000 arising on account of sale of residential house will be charged tax under which of the following head?
(A) Income from capital gains
(B) Income from house property
(C) Income from profits and gains from business or profession
(D) Income from other sources
Answer: (A)
Q87. Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his M/s Singh Traders. The office of the firm is located in Delhi whereas its godowns are located in the State of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir (J & K) respectively. M/s Singh Traders made following intra-state supplies from different States during the current financial year:
(i) Delhi - Taxable Supplies: ₹21,00,000
(ii) Punjab - Exempted Supplies: ₹6,00,000
(iii) Uttar Pradesh - Taxable and Exempted Supplies: ₹3,00,000 each respectively
(iv) J & K - Taxable and Exempted Supplies: ₹8,00,000 and ₹30,000 respectively
Ascertain the States in which Mr. Manjot is required to take registration under GST.
(A) Delhi, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and J & K
(B) Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and J & K
(C) Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Delhi
Answer: (B)
Q88. The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers are presently pegged at:
(A) 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 26%
(B) 0%, 6%, 12%, 18%, 28%
(C) 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%
(D) 0%, 5%, 12%, 16%, 28%
Answer: (C)
Q89. B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes at A's request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication, and all damages of any action in respect thereof. B is sued by C and has to pay damages, and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(A) A is not liable to B upon indemnity.
(B) A is liable to B upon indemnity.
(C) A is not liable to C upon indemnity.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (A)
Q90. A person whom the agent names to act for the principal in the business of agency, under the express or implied authority to name, is called ________.
(A) Sub-agent
(B) Substituted Agent
(C) Agent
(D) Procured Agent
Answer: (B)
Q91. A ________ injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit; the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
(A) Temporary
(B) Perpetual
(C) Both Temporary and Perpetual
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Q92. According to Section 5 of Specific Relief Act, 1963 a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided in ________.
(A) The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Answer: (B)
Q93. Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called an ________ mortgage.
(A) Conditional
(B) English
(C) Simple
(D) Usufructuary
Answer: (D)
Q94. In which of the following cases it was decided that a contract with minor is void?
(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) Chinnaih v. Ramaiah
(C) Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
(D) Harvey v. Facey
Answer: (C)
Q95. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to "Declaratory Decrees" under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
(A) Section 34 of the said Act deals with it.
(B) It is discretionary in nature.
(C) Both, (Section 34 of the said Act deals with it) and (It is discretionary in nature).
(D) None of these.
Answer: (C)
Q96. Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as defined under The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?
(A) Promissory Note
(B) Bill of Exchange
(C) Cheque
(D) Billing Receipt
Answer: (D)
Q97. According to Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 appropriate Government can acquire the land for which of the following purposes?
(1) for strategic purposes relating to naval, military, air force and armed forces of the Union.
(2) project for water harvesting and water conservation structures, sanitation.
(3) project for project affected families.
(4) project for sports, health care, tourism, transportation or space programme.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)
Q98. 'Specified person' under Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 means any person other than ________.
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) Government company
(C) Association of persons or trust or society wholly or partially aided by the appropriate Government or controlled by the appropriate Government
(D) All of these
Answer: (D)
Q99. Who shall be the Registrar of Trade Marks for the purposes of the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
(A) Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
(B) Controller-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
(C) Director-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
(D) Director-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
Answer: (A)
Q100. Which one of the following is not a type/s of IPR?
(A) Copyright
(B) Patents
(C) Designs
(D) Historical Indications
Answer: (D)
